Genesis 1: 28  "and subdue it": WHY would God use that word?
814850
Technically, God didn't write the Bible. The Bible was divinely inspired, so I believe your question is why would man choose that wording over another.\n\nSecondly, the word "subdue" in this contex is meaning for Adam to keep Earth at peace when need be. It's just another way of saying take care of what God has given you.\n\nThirdly, take into concideration the fact that the Bible is a translation. Sometimes finding the word to mean another word in a different language is harder than it seems. So, some words in the Bible need extra care in translation.
920265
The passage of inspired text to which you refer finds place with in the context of the Lord's conversation with the Jews who were tempting him in an effort to "catch him in his words" as they often did.  The Jews knowing of the continued controversary about marriage law which found much addressing between the Jews who insisted that Moses allowed divorce for any reason, and the Jews who contended that that which Moses' law was restricted to divorce based upon adultrey only, well realized that the marriage, divorce, re-marriage topic was hotly contested. They concluded that such was indeed the best of subjects with which to put the Lord in the proverbial hot water before the then present audience.\nThe Lord, however, being wise to the foolishness of such simply asked the question; "have ye not read" the Scripture? The Lord plainly refered the Jews to the Garden of Eden when God established his law regarding marriage. It is of good importance to notice that in the context of Matt.19:1-12 the Lord twice referd to the "begining," going back to God's law regarding marriage established in the Garden.  The Lord explained that God's law was never intended to be set aside concerning marriage, and that God intends that marriage is to be for life, and that divorce was never even so much as mentioned in the Genesis record. Thus the importance of that which the Lord stated in Matt.19:6 "That which God hath joined together, let not man put assunder."\nThe Jews then followed up with the question; "why did Moses then command " that a bill of divorcement be given?  Jesus informed the Jews that Moses did so because of the "hardness of the hearts" (Matt. 19:8) of the Jews.   Notice again the Lord's comment when he stated; "but from the begining it was not so" (Matt.19:8). \nThe Lord plainly revealed the fact that God's law pertaining to marriage was to be forever sealed, that is marriage is for life and only in the case of adultery may one (an innocent party)  put away a mate. Only the innocent mate in a marriage has the right to divorce a spouce who has committed adultery.  The innocent party then has the right to re-marry with God's approval, and only the innocent party (Matt.19:6). \nThe Lord plainly declared that one who was put away for adultery has lost the right to re-marry and must remain single. One guilty of adultery must come to the knowlege of the truth and comply with God's marriage law and remain single. For one to re-marry, who has committed adultery, places one in a continoius state of adultery. Thus the reason the Lord prohibited the mate guilty of adultry to re-marry.  It must also be realized that the only reason the Lord authorized divorce is in fact adultery.  If a divorce occurs in which neither spouce has committed adultery then neither spouce meets the requirements of the only exception authorized by the Lord to indeed acquire a divorce. Thus neither spouce has the right to re-marry, for neither one has indeed met the law establishing the exception the Lord allowed.\nAfter the Lord had well explained this matter to the Jews then present, (the 12 apostles also being present) the apostles concluded that if that which the Lord had just set forth in verses 4-9 were true it would be better to never marry if one could not divorce his spouce (Matt.19:10). The Lord of course gave this a ready reply. The reply is indeed recorded in verses 11 and 12\nNotice: \nVerse 11; "But he (Jesus) said unto them, all men cannot receive this saying, save they to whom it is given."     The passage is this by way of explaination. \nFirst; note that the words "But he said" are used. This of course settles the matter of the authority. It was Christ who said what he said.  Therefore, all men ought to heed well that which has been declared in the passage.\n\nSecond; The Lord stated, "All men cannot receive this saying."
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He said -\n"I form light and create darkness, I make weal and create woe;\n I the Lord do all these things" \n\nHaving the word "evil" ....this is often mistranslated in English Bibles, but in the Hebrew it is absolutely unmistakable. \n\nCan you explain what you mean by "evil" and what God meant by "evil"???????????? \n\nYou can't question God!!!!! nor his word!!!!\n\nAnyway don't forget that God can make woe for the evil people. However I'm sure he won't do that. He is a loving father to all of us even through we doubt Him and try to find faults with God, His word and His creation.
462603
Writing "G_d" is a practice based on the 3rd commandment ("You shall not take the name of YHWH [probably to be pronounced 'Yahweh,' traditionally ' translated as 'the LORD'] your God in vain.") But why and how did this PARTICULAR way of trying to keep the commandment come about?\n\n(In its original context the command likely had, first of all, to not dishonoring God by such behavior as lightly taking OATHS in his name and not keeping them, by extension to speaking or acting "in his name," whether claiming to speak for him, as his representative, or by claiming to follow him, but living in a way that brings dishonor to\nhim.)\n\nBut one significant expression of attempting to guard and honor the sanctity of the divine name (sometimes called the "tetragrammaton" after its four letters: Y-H-W-H) that we find many expressions of after the Babylonian Exile (6th century BC) is in special treatment of the spoken and written name(s) of God, beginning with "YHWH", and at times extending to other names and titles.\n\nWe see it in how the name was written in the scrolls of the Hebrew Bible, as well as in their early Greek translations. After the Babylonian Exile the Jews adopted the Aramaic letter forms in place of their own earlier forms. But among the Dead Sea Scrolls we find Scriptures written in the Aramaic letters, but with the divine name (which in English may be rendered YHWH) written in the older "paleo-Hebrew" script. Many early Greek translations (some as late as the 4th century AD) have the divine name written either in the Hebrew letters, or using Greek letters that LOOK like the Hebrew word. (If read as Greek one would say "Pipi", but there is no evidence such a pronunciation was ever intended.)\n\nAnother way of honoring the name YHWH that grew up at the same time was to avoid SAYING the name by substituting another Hebrew word (for Greek speakers it might be the Greek equivalent). For example, we find references to "the Name". This was at times extended to other divine names. So, for instance, in place of "God" one might say "heaven". We find some reflections of this in the NT, esp. in the gospel of Matthew, who (writing chiefly to JEWISH Christians) ordinarily speaks of the "kingdom of heaven" where other gospels use "kingdom of God".\n\nThe most important substitute was that of the word for "Lord" in place of the name YHWH. The Hebrew word was "ADONAI", Greek speakers used their equivalent, "KYRIOS". In fact, the NT throughout uses "Lord" (kyrios) when quoting OT passages that use the divine name YHWH. (This is important in connection with the claim of Christians that Jesus is divine -- calling him "Lord" was not just honoring him as "Master" but applying the divine name to him.) This practice has continued to be followed in most Scripture translations from the Hebrew, including the use of "the LORD" in most English translations. (Usually small caps are used to indicate that the original used "YHWH" not "Adonay".)\n\nEvidence for the Jewish practice is found in the customs of the Masoretes -- Hebrew scribes who carefully preserved the Hebrew text of Scripture, and added a system of markings, including accents and vowel-markings, to preserve the traditional understanding of the text. In the Masoretic manuscripts of the Hebrew Bible the name YHWH is marked with an unusual set of vowels, which if we tried to pronounce them would yield "Yehowah' [in later English, Jehovah"]. But that is not what they intended. Rather they marked the word with the vowels from "Adonay" to indicate that THIS was the word to be spoken when you came to the divine name.\n\nThe form "G_d" imitates this scribal practice of leaving out the original vowel sounds (to indicate what one is NOT s
706756
in the FLOOD mentioned in Genesis...
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"Exodus 33: 'evil tidings' from LORD? Moses talked face to face with LORD, but only saw 'back' parts of LORD?"\n\nAre you trying to reconcile Exodus 33 with the Kabbalistic concept of Qlippoth?\n\nWhile its quite normal in most mythological systems for deities to tell humans that they won't survive gazing upon the deity's awesome visage, Qlippoth does make an interesting question here.  Perhaps the suggestion would be that while we try to look YHVH in the face, we are unable to really conceive of it and can only glimpse the "back", the Qlippoth, ie the stuff we don't like so much.  Interesting how akin it is to the way children think of their parents when they're young. Maybe someday humans will mature and be able to see YHVH in a more wholistic fashion.\n\n"Could there be two LORDS to consider, sort out, if there's also mention of the LORD of 'LORDS'?"\n\nIn the translation I'm looking at right now, I don't see the phrase "Lord of Lords" used in Ex 33.  However, when it does come up its referring to one or both of two things: The supremacy of YHVH in the pre-Abrahamic Judaic pantheon (before Abraham made his covenant with YHVH, the Jews were polytheistic and YHVH was one deity among many), and/or the supremacy of YHVH as a heavenly Lord to earthly Lords.\n\n"Which 'things' are an 'allegory' and 'mystery'."\n\nThere's no allegory in this chapter.  And, for me at least, the Bible in its entirety can be understood as a Mystery if one chooses to see it that way.\n\n"Why did story of Noah's Ark mention God and LORD, who notably gave Noah contradicting commandments?"\n\nThe commands aren't really contradictory: They don't "undo" each other.  So its not like there are two entities here giving opposite commands to Noah and using him as a pawn in some secret hidden war.  God doesn't say "save the animals" only to have Lord come back and say "don't save the animals."  There's just a confusion over number, which I consider being a result of bad editing - something that's bound to happen when a text is scribed, re-scribed, redacted, translated, etc. ad nauseum over the course of roughly 6000 years.
375977
Don't you have that backwards? I've met many people who believe every word in the bible even if you can prove that it is a miss translation, or against known facts. The bible can be used to "prove" anything you like if you take it out of context and add your own spin.
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I don't think there are any scriptures that say it word for word like your question.  However in Genesis 38:9-10 it tells it like this:  And Onan knew that the seed should not be his; and it came to pass, when he went in unto his brother's wife, that he spilled it on the ground, lest that he should give seed to his brother.  And the thing which he did displeased the LORD: wherefore he slew him also.\n\nI've heard people say it like you did in your question, but I think that is a old saying derived from the scripture.
200622
At one point, the Israelites needed water and God told Moses to strike a rock with his staff to release water.  He did this and water came out of the rock.\n\nLater on, the Israelites had moved to another spot and were in need of water again.  God told Moses to speak to a rock to release water but Moses decided he knew better and struck the rock with his staff again.\n\nBecause of his disobedience to God, he was denied entrance to the Promised Land.
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God maks no mistakes! It is man who makes mistakes!\n\n  I can;t believe that Christians are answering in such a childish manner concerning this question. First of all the apple bit is a myth incerted into our bibles by those we allow to translate and print it .for the past three hundred years Jews have been translating and printing the Christians Bible and perverting it I believe in order to make us ignorant of GODs true word\n\n The BIBLE says to STUDY TO SHOW YOURSELF THE APPROVED WORD OF GOD.  To do that you must not believe that simply because someone hands you a Bible it is the "approved word " of GOD. To do this you must put some effort in it in order to prove your love for GOD. You must research history and go back and research the anciant writings of the bible . The greek Septuagint is one such anciant manuscript of Gods true word, untouched by Jewish translator. It was left in the hands of the Greeks because God knew they would not misstanslate it  and would present it as it was given to them. You can purchase an English version of the GReek Septuagitn today in order to put all these childhood , judao myths to rest.\n\n   First there was no fruit such as an apple in the bible. i have several old versions and in my 1703 verson it says that EVE WAS BEGUILED BY the SERPENT which is to mean that Eve was sexually tempted and did partake of the serpant in sex. \n\n God calls all things fruit because they are the fruit of GODS labor Adam and Eve were the fruit of GOdS labor and so was Satan.He says be fruitful and multiply meaning this toward humans and the multiplying of the people. He warned Adam and Eve that they could partake of any fruit in the garden which consisted only of Adam and Eve and the other fruit that God forbade them to partake of was the Fruit ( creation of satan whoc had more knwledge than they) of knowledge which was satan himself.\nDictionary\n par·take    ( P )  Pronunciation Key  (pär-tk)\nv. par·took, (-tk) par·tak·en, (-tkn) par·tak·ing, pa·takes \nv. intr.\nTo take or have a part or share; participate.  \nTo have part of the quality, nature, or character of something. \n\nv. tr.\nTo take or have a part in; share in.\n \n Eve was "Beguiled " (seduced ) by satan and that resulted in the son CAIN and later the Cannites.\n\nDictionary:Beguiled\n\nadj : filled with wonder and delight [syn: captivated, charmed, delighted, enthralled, entranced]\n\n     It was Cain who is the son of Satan and thusly the earthly seed of satan was born. \n\n  God warned them and Eve partook with satan once he beguiled and suduced her and then she shared with Adam whom when God asked why is it that they know they are naked, Adam responded " lord it is that woman you gave me." God was not madd at Adam because of the lust between Adam and Eve , He was angry because Eve disobeyed GOD and did partake of the fruit of knowledge ( the only one who had knowledge besides GOd at that time) and was impregnated with satans seed. God refers to all human creation as Fruit!\n\nGen 30:2 And Jacob's anger was kindled against Rachel: and he said, [Am] I in God's stead, who hath withheld from thee the fruit of the womb? \n\nExd 21:22 If men strive, and hurt a woman with child, so that her fruit depart [from her], and yet no mischief follow: he shall be surely punished, according as the woman's husband will lay upon him; and he shall pay as the judges [determine]. \n\nDeu 7:13 And he will love thee, and bless thee, and multiply thee: he will also bless the fruit of thy womb, and the fruit of thy land, thy corn, and thy wine, and thine oil, the increase of thy kine, and the flocks of thy sheep, in the land which he sware unto thy fathers to give thee. \n\n  In all transcripts of the Bible from 1611 back to the time of Christ there is no mention of an apple or the fruit of a tree . It read that Adam and Eve was not to partake of the fruit of knowledge whcih is the serpent satan. Jewish translation
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Interesting, but my translation says "God takes his stand in his own congregation".  (New American Standard).  We would need to discuss it with an expert in ancient hebrew to form an informed opinion, so take it easy.
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Proof that our "friend" is a hypocrite and a mental case, see above.\n\nI ask myself every time I read the Bible, what does this mean FOR me.
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These verses aren't saying the same things at all, and you aren't understanding them because you are looking at them out of context.  These are all from the NRS.\n\nGen 3:  14 The Lord God said to the serpent, "Because you have done this, cursed are you among all animals and among all wild creatures; upon your belly you shall go, and dust you shall eat all the days of your life. 15 I will put enmity between you and the woman, and between your offspring and hers; he will strike your head, and you will strike his heel."\n\n16 To the woman he said, "I will greatly increase your pangs in childbearing; in pain you shall bring forth children, yet your desire shall be for your husband, and he shall rule over you."\nhttp://bible1.crosswalk.com/OnlineStudyBible/bible.cgi?word=Genesis+2&section=0&version=nrs&new=1&oq=&NavBook=ge&NavGo=2&NavNextChapter=%3E%3E&NavCurrentChapter=2\n\nHere in Genesis 3:16, YHVH is telling Eve that her punishment for eating of the Tree of Knowledge is to have pain during childbirth, and yet to still desire sexual relations with her husband in spite of it; that her husband will rule over her on account of her desire for sexual relations with him.\n\nGen 4: 3 In the course of time Cain brought to the Lord an offering of the fruit of the ground, 4 and Abel for his part brought of the firstlings of his flock, their fat portions. And the Lord had regard for Abel and his offering, 5 but for Cain and his offering he had no regard. So Cain was very angry, and his countenance fell.\n\n6 The Lord said to Cain, "Why are you angry, and why has your countenance fallen? 7 If you do well, will you not be accepted? And if you do not do well, sin is lurking at the door; its desire is for you, but you must master it." \nhttp://bible1.crosswalk.com/OnlineStudyBible/bible.cgi?passage=ge+4&version=nrs&language=en&showtools=0\n\nHere, in Gen 4:7, YHVH is telling Cain that if he does good things he will be happy; that Cain should desire to do good things because good things desire Cain to make good things manifest.  But evil things also desire Cain to make evil things manifest, and so Cain must learn to control himself - to gain mastery over himself - in order to differentiate between good and evil, and then presumably choose good over evil because man's natural state is godlike and therefore good.
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I think that you are taking the story in Genesis 3 a bit too far, too literally. The fancy word for it is called anthropomorphism, ascribing human attributes and emotions (like fear, intimidation) to a deity.
26797
In Genesis 1:26, God said, "let us make people in our image..."\n\nMan didn't create God by writing the bible.  The bible was litterally God-breathed, or inspired by God.
10415
The Prophet now expands his subject, and shows that when the people repented, the fruits of repentance would openly appear. One fruit he records, and that is, that they would then begin to worship God purely, all superstitions being abolished. It shall be, he says, in that day that thou shalt call me, My husband; and he mentions the word, husband, to show to the people, that after having been corrected, they would be mindful of the covenant which God had made with them; and in that covenant, as stated before, there was the condition of a mutual engagement.\n\nWe hence see what the Prophet means: he tells us that the people would then be no more given to superstitions as before, but on the contrary would be mindful of God's covenant, and would continue sincere and true to their conjugal vow. Hence, thou shalt call me, My husband; that is, "Thou shalt know what I am to thee, that I am joined to thee by a sacred and inviolable marriage." And thou shalt not call me, My Baal; that is, "Thou shalt not give me a false and heathenish name:" for the word, Baal, as I have said before, was everywhere in every one's mouth. But the next verse must be added --
346541
Exodus 34:1 says God told Moses He would do it. But Exodus 34:28 says God told Moses to do it and he did.