There is an inverse relationship between an interest rate (discount rate) and the present value of a future ca
458061
True.  PV is the cash flow divided by the discount rate.
766444
time to the minus one.\n\nDo a dimensional analaysis on a rate equation to confirm this.
54607
The general trend of interest rates is moving upward (some analysts said this). Since the price of bond and interest rate has an inverse relationship, hence if r increases then price of bond decreases. Given the assumption that r is increasing, the current price of your bond holdings will be most likely to go down and hence you will incur a loss. This is what we call interest rate risk when one is holding a position in bond. For more research topic on bond risks, go to http://www.investopedia.com. Gud luck
1146788
The formula for compound interest calculation is  \nFuture Value = Principal (1 + monthly interest rate*12/100 )^no. of years\nHence $100 would become = 100(1+ 1.67*12/100)^5\n= $ 100(1+20.04/100 )^5\n= $ 100 ( 1.2004)^5\n= $ 100 * 2.4924697\n= $ 249.25 (rounded to two decimals)
852797
There is no exact date because the Management has the discretioin to decide on interest rates.
820876
http://finance.yahoo.com/q/bc?s=GBPUSD=X&t=2y
516188
7% - I used Excell to calculate an interest rate.
817950
It's an inverse relationship so as rates increase - prices decrease and vice versa.
946478
I'm going to go with B.  \n\nNot really sure what your definition of discount loan is, but assuming that it means amortizing (loan is getting paid off as you go), your balance decreases and the interest charges do as well.
297329
one formula you can use is\n\nF = P(1 + i)^n\nwhere,\n\nF = future worth of the money\nP = present worth of the money\ni = interest rate\nn = number of years\n\nsince the future worth of the money will be twice of the present worth, then we can say that,\n\nF = 2P\n\nusing this in the formula you'll come up with,\n\n-> 2P = P(1 + i)^n  \n(divide the whole equation by P)\n-> 2 = (1 + i)^n \n(n is 20 years)\n-> 2 = (1 + i)^20\n(raising the whole equation by 1/20)\n-> 2^(1/20) = 1 + i\n-> 1.035264 = 1 + i\n-> i = 0.035264\n-> i = 3.5264%
819834
if interest is compounded daily, don't forget to...\n\n1.  divide 5.16% by 365 to get the daily rate\n2.  use 30 days as your period "n"\n3.  don't use the avg daily balance.  you must use the initial principal balance at the beginning of the 30 day period.\n\ni haven't worked it out, but if your formula is correct, the future value will work.\n\nif you have a business calculator (preferrably from HP)\n\nPV = initial principal balance\ni = 5.16% divided by 365 days\nn = 30 days\n\nsolve for FV
880195
The lower rate times investment A will be part of the 760.\nThe higher rate times investment B will be the other part.\nA and B are parts of $10,000.\nSo A + B = 10,000\n\n6% interest * A plus 8% interest times B = 760.\nSo .06 * A + .08 * B = 760.\n\nLets return to A + B = 10,000.\nYou can "define" B by solving for B\nA + B - A = 10,000 - A\nB = 10,000 - A.\n\nYou can now substitute the definition of B for its occurance in the interest equation .06 * A + .08 * B = 760.  Therefor\n.06 * A + .08 * (10,000 - A) = 760.\n\nNow that A is the only variable, you can solve for A.\n.06 * A + .08 * (10,000 - A) = 760.\n.06 * A + 800 - .08 * A = 760\n800 = 760 - .06A + .08A\n40 = .02A\n40 / 0.02 = A\n2,000 = A\n\nB will then be 10,000 - A.  B = 8,000\n\nNow let's check the answer\n$2,000 * 6% = $120\n$8,000 * 8% = $640\n$120 + $640 = $760 \nQED
240449
The main choice is Discounted Cash Flow versus Internal Rate of Return.\n\nSome authors have a preference for one versus the other.\n\nUnder normal circumstances they produce the same answer; however, under unusual circumstances they produce different answers.  IRR requires that you be able to solve n-th degree polynomials, which can often be approximated with software like EXCEL.  IRR also produces multiple solutions, some of which need to be discarded as unrealistic.
1043517
Use the compound interest formula:\n\nA(t) = A (1+r/n)^(nt)  where A(t) is final value, A is starting value, r is interest rate, n is number of times interest is counted in a year, t is number of years. In this case we want to figure r.  Thus,\n1690 = 1255 (1+ r/4)^(2.75)(4)\n1690/1255 = (1+ r/4)^(11)\n1.3466 = (1+ r/4)^(11)\n(1.3466)^(1/11) = (1+ r/4)\n1.0274 = (1+ r/4)\n.0274 = r/4\nr = .1096 or 10.96%
1156391
Calculate the net present value of future cash flows using a discount factor that takes account of the risk profile of the firm.  Then divide that figure by the number of shares.
149317
There really are no calculations because they are not charging you ANY interest at all (probably for a certain amount of time only, right?) You will only be paying the Principle during that time, which means you are making a payment that actually reduces the total cost by the exact amount you pay.  WHen interest begins accruing, then each payment you make will be partially going to the product cost (prinicple) and partially to the interest cost (the creditor's profit for lending the money).  There is no better interest rate than 0%.  So, good going!
1042143
a. 10.9\n\n\nusing Gordon's dividend growht discount model, which is Dividends / (discount rate - growth), we see that:\n\n$1.80 (10.9% - 7%) = $46.15.\n\nof course, you have to use algebra to back into x, which was the 10.9%.