How come Hebrew's language translate recounts of millions yours from the past?
472199
Cause according to the bible (which was originally written in Hebrew but mostly read in English these days) - the world is less than 6,000 years old. So, if we had Adam and Eve around 6000 years ago, we should all be their descendants - millions of yours....
703858
There are 22 letters in the Hebrew Alphabet, and each letter has a numeral value:\n\nא (Alef)- 1\nב (Bet)- 2\nג (Gimel)- 3\nד (Dalet)- 4\nה (Heh)- 5\nו (Vav)- 6\nז (Zayin)- 7\nח (Chet)- 8\nט (Tet)- 9\nי (Yud)- 10\nכ (Kaf)- 20\nל (Lamed)- 30\nמ (Mem)- 40\nנ (Nun)- 50\nס (Samech)- 60\nע (Ayin)- 70\nפ (Peh)- 80\nצ (Tzadi)- 90\nק (Kuf)- 100\nר (Resh)- 200\nש (Shin)- 300\nת (Tav)- 400\n\nThe number 312 will be written שי"ב. Shin (ש) is for 300, Yud (י) is for 10, and Bet (ב) is for two. The letters are written from right to left and two inverted commas before the last letter shows that it is not a real word.\n\nThis Hebrew year is the year of תשס"ז means 400+300+60+7= 767. It is accepted to add the letter Heh (ה) with an apostrophe after it before the name of the year, and thus to add another 5000 years to the counting: ה'תשס"ז.\n\nAny word in Hebrew has a numeral value:\nתורה (Torah): 611\nאהבה (love): 13\nיותם (my name): 456\nעגבת (syphilis ): 475\nמלפפון (cucumber): 286
295958
Short answer:  the BASIC order of our letters goes back through Latin, through Greek to Phoenician and the earliest alphabets invented by speakers of "Northwest Semitic" languages (the group that includes Hebrew).   This order (with modifications necessitated by differences in the languages adapting the letters to their own languages) goes back to at least the mid 2nd millennium BC,  but we really don't know why they did it this way.\n\nIn fact, the very NAME "alphabet" betrays these roots!\n\n-----------------\nFuller answer (hang on!):\n\nThe LATIN letters were derived from a form of the GREEK alphabet, and the term "alphabet"  is based on the first two letters of the Greek alphabet --"alpha" and "beta" (so the idea of the word is the same as "a-b-c's").  But these Greek names are rather odd --meaningless, in fact. Why?  That's because the Greeks borrowed a number of the NAMES for their letters from the source of the letters themselves, the seafaring traders of Phoenicia.   The Phoenicians did not invent this system themselves, but were part of a cluster of related "Semitic" languages spoken centered in the regions later called Syria & Palestine.  The letter-names are derived from actual words which BEGAN with the sound that letter is used to represent (e.g., "aleph", meaning "ox").\n\nWe can actually still see much of the original Semitic order of the letters in the Latin alphabet, and even more in the Greek.   The original letters were at times used to represent a different sound from the original letter, esp when the original letter represented a sound unlike any in the language doing the borrowing.   (This is how the Greeks came up with the first set of VOWELS, which were not part of the original Semitic alphabet.)     The major changes/differences in ORDER were caused when the borrowing language dropped a letter it could not use...  and more often by adding letters needed in the borrower's language.  These new letters were most often added at the end, after "T", the final letter in the Semitic alphabets.  Later, after the early Latin alphabet was well-established, some letters"split" into variants, which were listed next to their "parent" letter.   Thus "I" and "J" come from one letter, "U" "V" and "W" were from one letter.\n\nSo when was did the SEMITIC order of the alphabet come about, and why?     Our earliest proven examples of the letters in the basic order used to this day are clay tablets the list the letters in order (perhaps for training scribes?) from the ancient Syrian city of Ugarit (the language, re-discovered in the 1920s is called "Ugaritic").  These show us that this order existed by at least 1300 BC. (with some additional letters for sounds that  were no longer found in later languages like Phoenician, Biblical Hebrew and Aramaic).\n\n(A few centuries later we find reflections of this order in the Bible.   The clearest examples are "acrostic" poetic passages in which  succeeding verses or sets of verses begins with the next letter of the alphabet. Psalm 119 is the most well-known example of this practice, and many English Bibles even mark the successive stanzas as "Aleph" "Beth", etc. ) \n\nBut we still do not know why they adopted THIS order!    Perhaps there is some ancient lost memory device or set of devices (story?  set of sentences?) in which this particular order was found useful for remembering the various letters.   Perhaps certain sounds were thought easy to group together (think of how "l m n" flows for us).      Many believe the inventors of the alphabet were speakers of a Semitic language living in or near Egypt.    So it is possible that the IDEA for an alphabets owed something to a part of the system of Egyptians hieroglyphics.  In that case, perhaps the gr
19292
Because they cant read the original Hebrew for the Hebrew Scriptures, or the original Greek for the Christian's New Testament. Therefore they must rely on someone else's translation. \n\nRemember that modern translations are copyrighted, and the organizations that translated them make money when every book of their translation is sold. The KJV is so old, going back to 1611, that it has no copyright anymore, so it is free. That is why it accompanies many, if not all, computer Bible Programs.\n\nAlso keep in mind that the KJV was the only version available, and then the only version acceptable, to many denominations of Christianity for a very long time.\n\nPlease also remember that the person or organization who does a translation is biased, and their translation will reflect their own theology, regardless of whether or not a verse in the original actually says what they claim it says. No translation is totally right, and some are better, and some are worse, than others.
1080983
The Bible was written thousands of years ago; since then it's been translated, re-translated, and possibly even mistranslated.  It's impossible to truly tell what its meaning is anymore.  As for what will happen in the end, no one can say for certain, because that part of the Bible is so wrapped up in symbolism that it boggles the mind just by reading it.\n\nAlso, despite what some may claim, the Bible is not written in code, either.
553381
Short answer: the BASIC order of our letters goes back through Latin, through Greek to Phoenician and the earliest alphabets invented by speakers of "Northwest Semitic" languages (the group that includes Hebrew). This order (with modifications necessitated by differences in the languages adapting the letters to their own languages) goes back to at least the mid 2nd millennium BC, but we really don't know why they did it this way!\n\nIn fact, the very NAME "alphabet" betrays these roots!\n\n-----------------\nFuller answer (hang on!):\n\nThe LATIN letters were derived from a form of the GREEK alphabet, and the term "alphabet" is based on the first two letters of the Greek alphabet --"alpha" and "beta" (so the idea of the word is the same as "a-b-c's"). But these Greek names are rather odd --meaningless, in fact. Why? That's because the Greeks borrowed a number of the NAMES for their letters from the source of the letters themselves, the seafaring traders of Phoenicia. The Phoenicians did not invent this system themselves, but were part of a cluster of related "Semitic" languages spoken centered in the regions later called Syria & Palestine. The letter-names are derived from actual words which BEGAN with the sound that letter is used to represent (e.g., "aleph", meaning "ox").\n\nWe can actually still see much of the original Semitic order of the letters in the Latin alphabet, and even more in the Greek. The original letters were at times used to represent a different sound from the original letter, esp when the original letter represented a sound unlike any in the language doing the borrowing. (This is how the Greeks came up with the first set of VOWELS, which were not part of the original Semitic alphabet.) The major changes/differences in ORDER were caused when the borrowing language dropped a letter it could not use... and more often by adding letters needed in the borrower's language. These new letters were most often added at the end, after "T", the final letter in the Semitic alphabets. Later, after the early Latin alphabet was well-established, some letters"split" into variants, which were listed next to their "parent" letter. Thus "I" and "J" come from one letter, "U" "V" and "W" were from one letter.\n\nSo when was did the SEMITIC order of the alphabet come about, and why? Our earliest proven examples of the letters in the basic order used to this day are clay tablets the list the letters in order (perhaps for training scribes?) from the ancient Syrian city of Ugarit (the language, re-discovered in the 1920s is called "Ugaritic"). These show us that this order existed by at least 1300 BC. (with some additional letters for sounds that were no longer found in later languages like Phoenician, Biblical Hebrew and Aramaic).\n\n(A few centuries later we find reflections of this order in the Bible. The clearest examples are "acrostic" poetic passages in which succeeding verses or sets of verses begins with the next letter of the alphabet. Psalm 119 is the most well-known example of this practice, and many English Bibles even mark the successive stanzas as "Aleph" "Beth", etc. )\n\nBut we still do not know why they adopted THIS order! Perhaps there is some ancient lost memory device or set of devices (story? set of sentences?) in which this particular order was found useful for remembering the various letters. Perhaps certain sounds were thought easy to group together (think of how "l m n" flows for us). Many believe the inventors of the alphabet were speakers of a Semitic language living in or near Egypt. So it is possible that the IDEA for an alphabets owed something to a part of the system of Egyptians hieroglyphics. In that case, perhaps the groupings of the letters and words may also be sug
1083866
While the books were written thousands of years latter, the story was passed down orally from the original people that where there.  Some places it got messed up and modified, sometimes a little, sometimes a lot.  When we look at figures like Noah and Abraham, they knew the stories and held on to the faith that had been passed to them, where as others didn't.  They added there own stories and eventually it all got written down.\n\nI am sure you know stories of your own family that go back generations but have never been written down.  You can see the variation in the story that each branch of your family tells.\n\nWhere Revelation comes in (and this is where it is often gotten wrong) is that it confirms the story and brings it to a higher plain of understanding.  It is not like the Hebrews didn't know the Genesis account and the book fell out of the sky one day and hit Moses on the head.  Rather God work with Moses to confirm the story and the Lord of History revealed what was clouded and lost.
520365
is this truly hebrew? it sound it could be (american) indian lingo.
179911
Well, in modern day hebrew, it would be bimyutzato (I think).  In the more ancient hebrew, I honestly can't remember...sorry!
1172677
That is more a question of translational bias on the part of the Christian translators of the Hebrew. And likewise to some degree on the part of the Jewish translators -- especially in regards to passages that might point someone to a particular Messiah.  Notice for example the elimination of "Shiloh" from the Jewish Publication Society translation of Gen 49:10 even though the Artscroll maintains it.\n\nOne of the many problems Christians have is in the fact that they call these books "the old testament", when they don't have a passage (even in their "new testament") that calls this collection by that name.  The "old covenant" which is being spoken of is the "covenant of sin and death" -- not a collection of books.  They have misappropriated the words and misapplied them.\n\nBeyond that, the Protestant "old testament" in Hebrew is exactly the same as the Tanakh.
178137
On one celebrated occasion, God pronounced his own name, repeating it in the hearing of Moses. Moses wrote an account of that event that has been preserved in the Bible down to our day. (Exodus 34:5) God even wrote his name with his own "finger." When he had given Moses what we today call the Ten Commandments, God miraculously wrote them down. The record says: "Now as soon as [God] had finished speaking with him on Mount Sinai he proceeded to give Moses two tablets of the Testimony, tablets of stone written on by God's finger." (Exodus 31:18) God's name appears eight times in the original Ten Commandments. (Exodus 20:1-17) Thus God himself has revealed his name to man both verbally and in writing. So, what is that name?  \n\nIn the Hebrew language it is spelled with four letters. These four letters, called the Tetragrammaton, are read from right to left in Hebrew and can be represented in many modern languages as YHWH or JHVH. God's name, represented by these four consonants, appears almost 7,000 times in the original "Old Testament," or Hebrew Scriptures.  \n\nThe name is a form of a Hebrew verb ha·wah', meaning "to become," and actually signifies "He Causes to Become."* Thus, God's name identifies him as the One who progressively fulfills his promises and unfailingly realizes his purposes. Only the true God could bear such a meaningful name.
728036
The same can be said of the Exodus. There are no records of a massive Jewish migration out of Egypt by Moses. Christians claim, erroneously, that the Egyptians never documented a bad policy and would never document losing thousands of slaves.\n\nInterestingly enough though, maticulous records from granaries show no excessive shortages or surplus, which would support the Exodus story...\n\nIt's a book. 5% philosophy, 73% theology, 22% assorted smut and violence. 100% fiction.\n\nIncidentally, for the guy above me, that occurance was off by about 5 years. The phenomenon you are referring to happened BEFORE the birth of Jesus in the historical record.\n\n-SD-
1143936
It's a translation of a translation of a translation of a translation of a copy of a copy of a copy of a copy of an oral history passed down through forty generations.  Quite by accident, it manages to preserve some nice poetry and a few scraps of practical philosophy.  Apart from that, it's a waste of paper and brain cells.
133376
Actually, you come very close!  I suggest an excellent book, "Idioms of the Bible", the author's name is beyond me for now.  It was created by  a Bible scholar who is very familiar with both modern and ancient Hebrew and Aramaic, and has done some wonderful research in various areas relating to the Bible and religion.
272699
what do you mean read it in hebrew, if you can do it
450826
Cuniform is the oldest written language. The old testament was written in Hebrew and Chaldean (Daniel)
88652
1. What scripture verse was translated incorrectly (What did the incorrect verse say)\n\nHERE IS THE WHOLE STORY, FOR THOSE WHO MAY NOT KNOW:::\n\n          Exodus 34:28-35  28 And he was there with the \n          Etrnl forty days and forty nights; he did \n          neither eat bread, nor drink water. And he wrote \n          upon the tables the words of the covenant, the \n          ten commandments. 29  And it came to pass, when \n          Moses came down from mount Sinai with the two \n          tables of testimony in Moses' hand, when he came \n          down from the mount, that Moses wist not that \n          the skin of his face shone while he talked with  \n          him.  כי קרן עור פניו בדברו אתו׃\n          30  And when Aaron and all the children of \n          Israel saw Moses, behold, the skin of his face \n          shone; and they were afraid to come nigh him. \n          31  And Moses called unto them; and Aaron and \n          all the rulers of the congregation returned unto \n          him: and Moses talked with them. 32  And \n          afterward all the children of Israel came nigh: \n          and he gave them in commandment all that the \n          Etrnl had spoken with him in mount Sinai. 33  \n          And till Moses had done speaking with them, he \n          put a vail on his face. 34  But when Moses went \n          in before the Etrnl to speak with him, he took \n          the vail off, until he came out. And he came \n          out, and spake unto the children of Israel that \n          which he was commanded. 35  And the children of \n          Israel saw the face of Moses, that the skin of \n          Moses' face shone: and Moses put the vail upon \n          his face again, until he went in to speak with\n          him. \n\nThe verse incorrectly translated is, of course, Exodus 34:29 above, and i have supplied the Hebrew. The word mistranslated is the word, 'KEREN,' meaning 'beam,' like a beam of light. Unfortunately, the word also means horn, as in a 'horn of plenty.'\n\n2. and what is the correct translation?\n\nMay own translation:::\n\nExo 34:29 ויהי ברדת משׁה מהר סיני ושׁני לחת העדת ביד־משׁה ברדתו מן־ההר ומשׁה לא־ידע כי קרן עור פניו בדברו אתו׃\n\nAnd when Moses came down from the Mountain of Sinai, with the two tablets of the testimony in the hand of Moses, when he came down from the Mountain, and Moses did not know that beams of light (keren or) shone from his face when he spoke with Him.\n\nAdditional information:: When i was a kid, i actually had Christians come up to me, asking me where my horns were? Their ministers and their families had taught them that the Jews actually had horns, based on the New Testament quotation, when Jesus calls The Jews children of Satan!!!!