Why do the JW's deny Jesus is God?
473697
Because they have been taught by people they trust (the Watchtower organization) that Jesus is not God.\n\nFor more discussion of the Jehovah's Witnesses, see\nhttp://www.godsci.org/gs/sect/jw/jw.html\n\nand\n\nhttp://www.godsci.org/gs/sect/jw/jw00.html\n\nCordially,\nJohn
154520
Some believe there is a three in one, the trinity, Bible Scholar's cannot explain it, and even "Schnab" cannot explain the trinity, and the reason is because there is no such thing as the trinity.  And Jesus proves it with this Scripture, he says there is only one that is good, GOD.\n\nMark 10:18  And Jesus said unto him, Why callest thou me good? there is none good but one, that is, God.  From King James Bible\n\n\nIf Jehovah is “the only true God,” what kind of “God” is Jesus?\n\nJesus himself referred to his Father as “the only true God.” (John 17:3) Jehovah himself said: “Besides me there is no God.” (Isa. 44:6) The apostle Paul wrote that, to true Christians, “there is . . . one God the Father.” (1 Cor. 8:5, 6) So Jehovah is unique; no one else shares his position. Jehovah stands in utter contrast to all such objects of worship as idols, deified humans, and Satan. All these are false gods.\n\nJesus is spoken of in the Scriptures as “a god,” even as “Mighty God.” (John 1:1; Isa. 9:6) But nowhere is he spoken of as being Almighty, as Jehovah is. (Gen. 17:1) Jesus is said to be “the reflection of [God’s] glory,” but the Father is the Source of that glory. (Heb. 1:3) Jesus in no way seeks the position of his Father. He said: “It is Jehovah your God you must worship, and it is to him alone you must render sacred service.” (Luke 4:8) He exists “in God’s form,” and the Father has commanded that “in the name of Jesus every knee should bend,” but this is all done “to the glory of God the Father.”—Phil. 2:5-11; see also pages 212-216.\n\nDoes John 1:1 prove that Jesus is God?\n\nJohn 1:1, RS: “In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God [also KJ, JB, Dy, Kx, NAB].” NE reads “what God was, the Word was.” Mo says “the Logos was divine.” AT and Sd tell us “the Word was divine.” The interlinear rendering of ED is “a god was the Word.” NW reads “the Word was a god”; NTIV uses the same wording.\n\nNotice, too, how other translations render this part of the verse:\n\n1808: “and the word was a god.” The New Testament in an Improved Version, Upon the Basis of Archbishop Newcome’s New Translation: With a Corrected Text.\n\n1864: “and a god was the word.” The Emphatic Diaglott, interlinear reading, by Benjamin Wilson.\n\n1928: “and the Word was a divine being.” La Bible du Centenaire, L’Evangile selon Jean, by Maurice Goguel.\n\n1935: “and the Word was divine.” The Bible—An American Translation, by J. M. P. Smith and E. J. Goodspeed.\n\n1946: “and of a divine kind was the Word.” Das Neue Testament, by Ludwig Thimme.\n\n1950: “and the Word was a god.” New World Translation of the Christian Greek Scriptures.\n\n1958: “and the Word was a God.” The New Testament, by James L. Tomanek.\n\n1975: “and a god (or, of a divine kind) was the Word.” Das Evangelium nach Johannes, by Siegfried Schulz.\n\n1978: “and godlike kind was the Logos.” Das Evangelium nach Johannes, by Johannes Schneider.\n\nWhat is it that these translators are seeing in the Greek text that moves some of them to refrain from saying “the Word was God”? The definite article (the) appears before the first occurrence of the·os´ (God) but not before the second. The articular (when the article appears) construction of the noun points to an identity, a personality, whereas a singular anarthrous (without the article) predicate noun before the verb (as the sentence is constructed in Greek) points to a quality about someone. So the text is not saying that the Word (Jesus) was the same as the God with whom he was but, rather, that the Word was godlike, divine, a god. (See 1984 Reference edition of NW, p. 1579.)\n\nWhat did the apostle John mean when he wrote John 1:1? Did he mean that Jesus is himself God or perhaps that Jesus is one God with the Father? In the same chapter, verse 18, John wrote: “No one [
1051574
There is a true God, who has as many definitions as there are people - and then there is a biblical god Jehovah, who was an ancient desert-people deity of storms and thunder who later became elevated to the god of the Jews. Few people ever consider the idea that the genuine "Creator" or "Almighty" is only seen in tiny, rare glimpses in the bible. The real God is in truth and science, and in the highest levels of human logic and understanding. Christians do a disservice to the true God by believing all the mythologies about hellfire and the wrath of Jehovah, but Christianity is a religion as much about mindless obedience born out of fear as it is about salvation and love.
1063078
John 1:1 makes it pretty clear that Jesus is to be understood as being God. (i.e. "Word" is referring to Jesus, see John 1:14)\n\nThe Council of Nicea was only really confirming was already the church's stance on what the Bible says about Jesus. The Council was convened to refute what some other people claimed about Jesus that was not consistent with the Bible. I.e. nothing new came from the Council of Nicea - more a distillation rather a declaration.\n\nWhat Jesus says about himself:\nJohn 8:58 shows Jesus declaring "I am!", which is another way of saying "I am God." This is because "I AM" is the name that God gives himself in the Old Testament (Exodus 3:14). The Jews were well aware of what saying "I am" in such a manner meant, which is why straight after that attempt to stone him (i.e. for blasphemy).\n\nAgain, in John 10:30, Jesus claims that he "and the Father (i.e. God) are one". Again, the Jews prepare to stone him, explicitly for blasphemy, that a mere man claims to be God (John 10:33)\n\nJohn 14:9 Jesus says: "Anyone who has seen me has seen the Father."\n\nMore explicity about the Son of God = God\nIn Matthew 26:65 - Jesus is asked if he is the Son of God. He says he is, and is therefore accused of blasphemy, i.e. claiming to be God.\n\nJesus actions are consistent with divinity:\nJesus' forgiveness of the sins of the paralytic man and the subsequent healing of the man, was to demonstrate Jesus power and authority, not only to heal, but also to forgive sins. Only God can forgive sins. (Luke 5:17-26)\n\nWhat Paul says about Jesus' divinity:\nColossians 1:15 "He is the image of the invisible God..."\n2:9 - "For in Christ, the fullness of the deity lives..."\n\nHope this helps. If anything, at least it shows that the Council of Nicea weren't coming up with any original material, they just ripped it off the New Testament.
1119715
Jesus is GOD\n\nIsaiah 7:14\nIsaiah 9:6\nMicah 5:6\nJohn 1:1, 14\nJohn 1:10\nJohn 8:24 58-58\nJohn 14:6-11\n2 Corinthians 5:19\n1 Timothy 3:16\n\n\nJohn 1:10\nHe was in the world and the world was made by him, and the world knew him not.\n\n1 Cor 8:6\nBut to us there is but one God, the Father, of whom are all things and we in him, and one Lord Jesus Christ, by whom are all things, and we by him
767916
Part of the problem is that the JWs are a cult. The link below explains a lot of there theology.
385541
Jesus even said MULTIPLE times that he is the SON. and to worship his Father. \n\nAS well as saying that he was SENT by the Father. \n\nhow could he be a medium or a spritist, when he was only working for the one whom sent him?\n\nJesus is not God (please not the capital) but he is a god (note: no capital). many worship him, yes. but the question should be... why dont they worship God? when clearly Jesus did?\n\n...*shrug* and thats my 2 cents
561388
Isn't Jesus the SON of God?
956002
What absolute truth are you talking about? I believe in Jehovah God as my Heavenly Father & Jesus Christ as His son. I believe that the Holy Spirit is Jehovah's active force.
543001
Well all this bloodline business is pure speculation, however that Jesus was married to the Magdalene is more than speculation since we have evidence in the writings of the earliest christians. You are right to say the christians never thought Jesus was god and such ideas crept into christianity centuries later. Once the church voted on the divinity of Jesus, they picked & chose the writings which suited them (and it's interesting that even with all the picking & choosing the so-called NT still does not declare that Jesus is god). DC is simply stirring up the old issue again and people are sick & tired of churches dictating what god is. And no, the churches do not like people to go sniffing into the past.
898054
Jesus is not God. He never claimed to be God. At John 3:17, does it say that God came to earth? No. It says that God sent his Son, not himself.\n\nThe scripture you used at John 8:58 is another trinitarian "proof" that Jesus is God. But is it? The expression at John 8:58 is quite different from the one used at Exodus 3:14. Jesus did not use it as a name or a title but as a means of explaining his prehuman existence. Hence, note how some other Bible versions render John 8:58. \n\n1869: "From before Abraham was, I have been." The New Testament, by G. R. Noyes. \n \n1935: "I existed before Abraham was born!" The Bible—An American Translation, by J. M. P. Smith and E. J. Goodspeed. \n \n1965: "Before Abraham was born, I was already the one that I am." Das Neue Testament, by Jörg Zink. \n \n1981: "I was alive before Abraham was born!" The Simple English Bible. \n \n1984: "Before Abraham came into existence, I have been." New World Translation of the Holy Scriptures.  \n\nThus, the real thought of the Greek used here is that God's created "firstborn," Jesus, had existed long before Abraham was born. Colossians 1:15; Proverbs 8:22, 23, 30; Revelation 3:14. \n\nAgain, the context shows this to be the correct understanding. This time the Jews wanted to stone Jesus for claiming to "have seen Abraham" although, as they said, he was not yet 50 years old. (Verse 57) Jesus' natural response was to tell the truth about his age. So he naturally told them that he "was alive before Abraham was born!\n\nThere is no Bible verse that says Jesus is Almighty God.
186937
Is Jesus Christ actually God?\n\nJohn 17:3, RS: “[Jesus prayed to his Father:] This is eternal life, that they know thee the only true God [“who alone art truly God,” NE], and Jesus Christ whom thou hast sent.” (Notice that Jesus referred not to himself but to his Father in heaven as “the only true God.”)\n\nJohn 20:17, RS: “Jesus said to her [Mary Magdalene], ‘Do not hold me, for I have not yet ascended to the Father; but go to my brethren and say to them, I am ascending to my Father and your Father, to my God and your God.’” (So to the resurrected Jesus, the Father was God, just as the Father was God to Mary Magdalene. Interestingly, not once in Scripture do we find the Father addressing the Son as “my God.”)\n\nDoes John 1:1 prove that Jesus is God?\n\nJohn 1:1, RS: “In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God [also KJ, JB, Dy, Kx, NAB].” NE reads “what God was, the Word was.” Mo says “the Logos was divine.” AT and Sd tell us “the Word was divine.” The interlinear rendering of ED is “a god was the Word.” NW reads “the Word was a god”; NTIV uses the same wording.\n\nWhat is it that these translators are seeing in the Greek text that moves some of them to refrain from saying “the Word was God”? The definite article (the) appears before the first occurrence of the·os´ (God) but not before the second. The articular (when the article appears) construction of the noun points to an identity, a personality, whereas a singular anarthrous (without the article) predicate noun before the verb (as the sentence is constructed in Greek) points to a quality about someone. So the text is not saying that the Word (Jesus) was the same as the God with whom he was but, rather, that the Word was godlike, divine, a god. (See 1984 Reference edition of NW, p. 1579.)\n\nWhat did the apostle John mean when he wrote John 1:1? Did he mean that Jesus is himself God or perhaps that Jesus is one God with the Father? In the same chapter, verse 18, John wrote: “No one [“no man,” KJ, Dy] has ever seen God; the only Son [“the only-begotten god,” NW], who is in the bosom of the Father, he has made him known.” (RS) Had any human seen Jesus Christ, the Son? Of course! So, then, was John saying that Jesus was God? Obviously not. Toward the end of his Gospel, John summarized matters, saying: “These are written that you may believe that Jesus is the Christ, [not God, but] the Son of God.”—John 20:31, RS.\n\nDoes Thomas’ exclamation at John 20:28 prove that Jesus is truly God?\n\nJohn 20:28 (RS) reads: “Thomas answered him, ‘My Lord and my God!’”\n\nThere is no objection to referring to Jesus as “God,” if this is what Thomas had in mind. Such would be in harmony with Jesus’ own quotation from the Psalms in which powerful men, judges, were addressed as “gods.” (John 10:34, 35, RS; Ps. 82:1-6) Of course, Christ occupies a position far higher than such men. Because of the uniqueness of his position in relation to Jehovah, at John 1:18 (NW) Jesus is referred to as “the only-begotten god.” (See also Ro, By.) Isaiah 9:6 (RS) also prophetically describes Jesus as “Mighty God,” but not as the Almighty God. All of this is in harmony with Jesus’ being described as “a god,” or “divine,” at John 1:1 (NW, AT).\n\nThe context helps us to draw the right conclusion from this. Shortly before Jesus’ death, Thomas had heard Jesus’ prayer in which he addressed his Father as “the only true God.” (John 17:3, RS) After Jesus’ resurrection Jesus had sent a message to his apostles, including Thomas, in which he had said: “I am ascending . . . to my God and your God.” (John 20:17, RS) After recording what Thomas said when he actually saw and touched the resurrected Christ, the apostle John stated: “These are written that you may believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God, and that believing you may have life in his name.” (Jo
1055807
Jesus is NOT God.\n\nJesus proclaimed to be The Son of God.\nJesus is The King of Kings. Lord of Lords.\nJesus Christ is the only way to The Father Jehova.\nJesus Christ is the 2nd in The trinty, not the First.\nThe Holy spirit is the 3rd in the Trinity, not the 2nd.\n\nGod The Father..Jesus The Son. The Holy Spirit in the Trinity, just in that order.\n\nIf Jesus Christ is God in the flesh, He would be called "God in the flesh". Jesus is called"The Son of God"., for a reason. Because He is.\n\nJehovah God said what?  I will have NO other God's before me.\nDon't put Jesus Christ before Jehovah God.\n\nWe are Christians and ONE in Christ through the Blood. \n\nJehovah, Jesus, The Holy Spirit are ONE through the power of God.\n\nWe are Christians _Christ like.\nWe are not Jehovians, Jehova-likes.\nIf we were Jehovah like, we would be "equals to God.\n\nWe are God's children, not God's equals.
206986
An extreme misinterpretation of the Bible leads some to believe that God is 1 but broken into 3 parts. The idea isn't supported by the Bible at all, and to teach that there's a trinity is to not only lie but to dishonor God and Jesus Christ.\n\nSimply put: THERE IS NO TRINITY. \n\nGod is ONE god, alone. He is not a combination of Father, Son, and Holy Spirit. God's name according to the Bible (as is most commonly translated) is Jehovah. Jehovah's Son is Jesus Christ (a created being by God according to Colossians 1:15 and Revelation 3:14) and Jesus is a separate being that is in lower position relative to God. The Holy Spirit isn't a being at all, but the most powerful force in the universe, a force that God uses in the accomplishing of his purposes. \n\nThe Bible makes it very clear. There is NO trinity.
747898
I don't know why. Why do Christians say that Jesus (pbuh) is the son of God? \n\nGod has no physical children. We are all His spiritual children.
541841
No, they simply add proof to the fact that Jesus Christ was the Messiah. His ability to perform miracles was only due to the power that came from his Father and God, Jehovah. Colossians 1:15 and Revelation 3:14 both clearly show that Jesus is a created being, in fact the very first creation by God. The recorded Bible prophecies that the Bible contains that were written hundreds and thousands of years in advance of Jesus' human existance, and how Jesus fulfilled each one exactly as written is proof....not that he is God, because he certainly isn't, but is proof that he was the Messiah, or God's anointed one. The fact that he was unable to raise himself from the dead is further proof that he isn't God. It was God who raised him, thus showing that God is a being totally separate and distinct from Jesus. \n\nColossians 1:15 - Jesus is the "firstborn of all creation"\n\nRevelation 3:14 - Jesus is "the beginning of the creatiobn by God"\n\nJohn 14:28 - Jesus plainly states "the father is greater than I am" - thus acknowledging that he is neither God, but is less than God. \n\n1 Corinthians 11:3 - as the man is the head of the woman, "in turn the head of the Christ is God". Thus, Jesus himself answers to a higher or superior being, his Father and God. \n\nJohn 7:16 - Jesus' message didn't originate from himself, but "belongs to him that sent me", namely his Father.
869371
Let's get one thing straight. The verses you quoted were statements made by Jesus; not Almighty God. The trinity doctrine that is widely taught in Christendom is really throwing you off. When Jesus is making these statements he's humbly acknowledging that in fact the "father" is greater than him. This is further reiterated in John 14:28. Why would almighty God who knows all things would not know for instance the day of Judgment?_Psalms 83:18 Notice that the scripture that you quoted (Mark 13:2) says in the 2nd part of the verse:"neither the angels in heaven nor the Son, but the "Father." Again this stresses that Jesus or the Son of God doesn't know the day, but his FATHER would know. Clearly this shows that Jehovah God and Jesus are two different people and that this shows a distinction between them. If Jesus and God were the same wouldn't Jesus know the day of Judgement too?\nThe many other statements that Jesus makes further show that he is not equal to his father._Philippians 2:6: "who, although he was existing in God's form, gave no consideration to a seizure, namely, that he should be equal to God."_1 Corinthians 11:3, John 20:17. Similiarly, no son is equal to his father or the same as him. Sure they may look alike, talk, or act alike but you recognize them as two separate entities not combined in one. In John 5:19 Jesus makes it clear that he doesn't do a single thing of his own initiative, but only what he beholds the Father doing. Also whatever that One does he also does in like manner.\nAfter reasoning from the scriptures you can conclude that from your statements above, Jesus was not only recognizing his father as greater than he was but was giving his father praise and honor by giving him the credit. You can also conlcude that if you read the Bible nodenominationally you would not come to the conclusion that God is part of a trinity which is contradicted in the scriptures. Instead Christ is "one" with God (not literally) in that they are always in harmony with each other just like a husband and wife were to be one as in united together._Genesis 2:24. The trinity really blurs the relationship between God and Jesus and is a source of confusion for many. You can find more information on this particular subject from this link. http://www.watchtower.org/library/ti/article_04.htm