can my ex-spouse sell our community property without my signature?
363397
absolutley not call a lawyer or even the police!!
503620
No, there are laws concerning the rights of personal belongings. You need give her written notice of intent to move, store,sell, or destroy the Items. You can charge a storage fee, payable if the items are not removed in a reasonable amount of time, say 30 days, but again proper notice needs to be given. If your renting, read the fine print on the lease regarding personal Items left after moving, or ask your landlord what they would do. If your unable to notify your ex-roommate with in 90 days, You can post a small add in the local news paper under lost Items found. then if they don't respond in two weeks you can do what ever you like with the items, and still hold your ex responsible for storage and removal charges for up to seven years as long as you post the same ad in the paper each year to show interest in the charges in case you take  the ex to court. All ads, court fees, storage and removal fees, are your ex's responsibility to pay if you do it right. In the future , all roommates should enter into a mutual agreement in writing regarding such things. It's important to consider all "what if's" in these types of agreements. Good luck.
1022048
A mortgage involves a note and  a (trust) deed. Unless you expressly deeded an interest to your home to your ex-husband, you are the still the sole owner and he is obligated on the mortgage note (Sucks to be him if you default). \n\nThe disposition of the house and the mortgage (and debt) should have been explicitly dealt with in your divorce. If you had a divorce lawyer, you should contact the lawyer to determine if your EX has any legal rights to the home.\n\nMortgage companies and banks do not tend to be careless where a legal owner and spouse sign a note and trust deed. You may be obligated by the note. \n\nThe mortgage, however, would not entitle your EX to any interest in your home.
729719
Can't speak for Oregon, but in Michigan once you've signed the papers it's a done deal.  If you think the sellers took advantage of you, talk to a lawyer (many lawyers advertise in the Yellow Pages and give free initial consultations).  There may be a chance to get out of the sale, but the lawyer would have to review your closing paperwork, the inspection/appraisal, etc., and would have to show a material omission or misrepresentation on the part of the seller, and that can be tough to prove.
1004480
This has nothing whatever to do with marital property rights, community property or anything else. (Although would be important in other circumstances.) But here, your name is on the deed.\n\nIf your name is on the deed then you have an interest in the property. If the deed is simply to you and your spouse with nothing further stated then your interest is the same as your husband's.
941977
A quit claim(not quick) would relinquish all your rights to the property. Are you planning on "giving" this property away?\n\nI would NOT do that(sign anything) before talking with an attorney first.
817184
You need not be present physically to take possession, if you mean taking handover and taking the keys. Your authority to someone is enough, and yes if your father in law has the POA, he can do that even without you knowing that he did.. \n\n..but when you need to do the official registration of the property, your physical presence is a must. Power of attorney's for property registration is not accepted anymore since the new property law for non resident Indian's was enacted in 2003.
2043
You might have a hard time.  Regardless of your marital status at the time of signing you could still be what is called tenants in common.  Any two people can be tenants in common.  Go back to your original contract and read what it says.  If it names both of you and both of you agreed then you are probably tenants in common.  Each having half undivided interest.\n\nBut this also means she would be responsible for half  of anything like taxes, mortgage payments and any other expenses with the property.\n\nAbout the only claim you can make to the property would be adverse possesion in he half interest but it might be a stretch.\n\nBut after 25 years of no payment of duties it might equal her half interest anyway.\n\nI would ask for accounting and partition....but see a lawyer.
795484
This is a sticky situation. First, I'm going to assume that your husband was on the original note and mortgage with his prior wife, therefore, he is obligated to make those payments when she does not, regardless of the divorce decree. It's crummy, I know. Sure, she can be held in contempt, but that really doesn't help you and your hubby out. My suggestion is this: Call the mortgage company that holds the note. Or rather, have your husband called. As he is on the note, he has a right to access any of the information. Have him explain the situation to the mortgage broker and find out what help they can offer him. Next, find an attorney that will sit down with you and find out what they suggest you do legally with the ex-wife. \n\nI can relate, as my divorce attorney suggested that all I needed to do was sign a quit claim deed to "remove" myself from the property. Luckily, working in the industry, I did know better, but it really bothers me that this is so common. Please keep us posted, I'll keep you and your hubby in my thoughts in the hopes that this works out for you.
375988
you should get a real estate attorney to look over any documents way before you sign them ..so if their has to be any changes they attorney can suggest which ones and how to do it..then bring it back the attorney for final approval and then you can sign it\nGood luck
1078666
Not if you live in a state where community property and community debt are not separated, like here in Texas.  So I doubt it but I'd ask an attorney for suggestions anyway...good luck.
621299
It's not fraud or extortion.  If the title is in his name, and you are not on the title of the home... he is the owner of the home.\n\nIf both of you are on the title, both of you would have signed mortgage docs (you would have had to acknowledge the presence of a mortgage).\n\nWhatever you two did with the money is between you two.  Yes you've been had; this is a civil matter.  Did you have an agreement between the two of you(written)?
639979
NO duh!\n\nIf your name is changed legally how could you sign anything with anything but your new legal name DuH!
1060124
I am in US, so not sure about Ontario law, but you can probably find out the answer from your local authorities. In the US, you could easily do this by recording a deed, saying "I hereby grant an easement over and across that portion of my property being the following described former municipal lane, to Mrs. X, for purposes of ingress and egress to her existing property." Of course, she should be willing to compensate you for doing this. If you and she cannot agree on an amount, but she insists that she has a right to use the lane, then the matter could result in litigation.
435326
The only way that someone can be added to the title of your property is if you sign a deed.  There is no way that your spouse can refinance the mortgage on your property unless you sign a deed adding him as an owner or if you sign the mortgage documents.
944186
Laws governing property and spousal rights vary widely from one state to the next. Go see a lawyer. Initial consultations are usually free.\n\nWith that said, in many states it doesn't much matter whose name is on the mortgage. Assets acquired while a couple is married are generally considered to be jointly held. And so, a wife who moves out nonetheless has a property interest in the house whether she co-signed the mortgage or not. The same is true for any other property and investments.\n\nIt will behoove you (especially if there are children involved) to not be guided by what any of the folks here are saying (including myself). Call a local lawyer who will help you to keep a share of what is rightfully half yours.
231695
I'm not sure if it's different in community property states, but generally speaking, if there is only one name on the mortgage, only that person's credit will be affected. The deed just refers to who has title to the home. \nOptions would be to rent it (which he's trying to do) or sell it before it goes into foreclosure. But if he sells the property, the wife will get some of the proceeds because she's on the deed. He should try to get her to sign off on the deed so it is under his name only.