Why are the effects of recessive sex-linked alleles seen more in males than females?
363654
The X-chromosome in humans has about 1045 genes on it, and the Y only has 5. So the chances of a Y-linked disorder are slim (1/209). \n\nIn females, having two X chromosomes means that both would have to have the bad copy of the gene to express the trait. Males, with only one X, express whatever is on that chromosome, good or bad.
522553
lol no\nits because it is a sex linked disease or disorder. there are the x and y sex chromosomes that determine gender the female is xx the male is xy. x is the only chromosome that can carry genes. colorblindness is recessive. let x1 stand for colorblind gene. if a female gets one colorblind gene (x1) having the genes x1x then they wont show colorblindness because it is recessive and wont show. if a male gets one color blind gene and has the genes x1y then he will have colorblindness because there is nothing else to cover it. males cannot be carriers and it is more likely for the males to get colorblindness because they only need one chance to get an x1 gene.
293753
Your friend is correct. I just studied this in school. Dark hair always dominates light hair. And the allele for green eyes overpowers the allele for blue eyes.
886090
There are several types of color deficiencies, do you mean to include all? If so, then around 0.8% carry this deficiency. It is less common to women because it is a sex linked gene, carried on the X chromosome where men have one and women have two. Both X chromosomes have to be affected for women so the X from her mom must be colorblind and her dad has to be colorblind. For men, only one X chromosome has to be affected so either/or his mom has one/two affected chromosomes, or his dad is colorblind.
174769
color-blindness is a sex-linked (aka x-linked) trait \nfor a female it is X^c X^c\nfor a male it is X^c Y\n\nwhere C is normal vision and\nc is color-blind
133895
Hemophilia affects the X chromosome. The reason that Hemophilia generally only affects men is because that in women, who are generally carriers of the disease, they have an additional X chromosome to offset the bad gene on their other. Men are missing this leg on their Y chromosome, and thus have the disease if they are passed a bad X by their mother.\n\nMen who have hemophilia cannot pass on the disease to their sons, as they would be passing on the Y chromosome, which is perfectly healthy, but all of their daughters would be carriers of the disease, receiving the father's "bad" X chromosome. This is why hemophilia is considered a sex-linked disease.\n\nSo, in short, Hemophilia affects a portion of the DNA on the X chromosome that tells the body how to create Factor VIII or Factor IX (depending on if it's A or B), that portion being absent on the Y chromosome, thus causing the disease.
821002
There are also children. *g* Now if you are talking about male and female genders, there are also hermaphrodites and others with genetic abnormalities.
639406
When Mendel began to scientifically analyze "heredity", he concluded that each parent (mother + father) donates an "allele" for a characteristic (trait) in question.\n\nA lettering system was used: Capital letters indicated that the allele is DOMINANT; lower-case letters indicate that the allele is RECESSIVE.  This is the case for 22 of the 23 chromosome pairs in humans.  The 23rd pair are called the sex chromosomes.  Females (mother) always donate an "X" allele; fathers can donate either an "X" or a "Y" allele.\n\nIf a person's genotype for their sex is "XX", this means two things.  1: Both X's are the same (in other words, X and X are identical).  Identical alleles are called HOMOZYGOUS.  2: A human who is "XX" is female.\n\nA human who is "XY" is male.  "X" allele and "Y" allele are DIFFERENT.  Thus, they called HETEROZYGOUS.  We refer to men as being "heterozygous" in that a male's SEX alleles, 'X' and 'Y' are different.\n\nLet us say "B" is the dominant allele for brown eyes, and "b" is the recessive allele that can result in blue eyes.  A person who is "Bb" is heterozygous (B is a different allele than b).  A person's who genotype is Bb is likely to have brown eyes.  A person who is "BB" is HOMOZYGOUS (1st B is identical to the 2nd B) and will definitely have brown eyes.  A person who is "bb" is HOMOZYGOUS (1st allele 'b' is identical to the 2nd allele, 'b') for the recessive allele; this person will have blue eyes.
679731
Yes.  This does happen to both males and females.
10461
There is no difference in spots. The male and female are hard to tell apart other than the female is slightly larger. Otherwise you have to use a microscope.
430415
To answer your question....yes.  The egg cells of the female all carry X chromosomes.  The sperm cells can carry either X or Y.  So basically, the sex of a mammal depends on the male, and which particular sperm fertilizes the egg (X).  If an X sperm fertilizes the egg, you have XX, which is a female, and if a Y sperm fertilizes it, you have XY, which is male.  This is why some sex-linked traits are more visible in males, such as color blindness, but that's a whole different post.
1114858
Neither one is more important than the other, since both are required to keep the system going.  However, as the limiting factor in reproduction is how fast women can gestate young, give birth, and recover enough to gestate another child, you need far fewer males than females (as males can continually impregnate other females while pregnant females gestate young).\n\nHowever, to dispel a myth, while females do comprise slightly more of the population than males, nature produces 105 males to every 100 females in human beings.  \n\nThe difference which leads to the female majority in humans is the result of the fact males are much more likely to be victims of murder, are much more likely to die accidental deaths, are more likely to be killed in the line of work, be killed during wars or battles, are more likely to suffer from a chronic genetic disease (most are carried on the X chromosome, so while you have to have two defective copies of the gene in females in order for them to be afflicted by it and not be a carrier, males only have one copy of the genes on the X chromosome, so they need only receive one defective copy to cause them to suffer from the disease... and no, this doesn't make females biologically superior since it proves the mother of the offspring specifically had defective genetic traits which were passed on to the male offspring) etc... etc... etc...\n\nAnd nature seems to understand this, and hedges its bet by producing more males to shore up the numbers.\n\nP.S.-- We cannot clone viable sperm.  Males still have to manufacture the stuff au naturel for the process to work.
646525
it is either X^cX^c or X^cY\n\nIf the subject is female, she must be homozygous recessive for colorblindness (which is a recessive X-linked trait). \n\nIf the subject is male, all he needs is the colorblindness trait on his only X chromosome. Males only inherit one X and one Y. colorblindness is never carried on the Y chromosome, so as long as he inherits it on the X, he will have it.\n\nThis is why men tend to be more subject to colorblindness than women. Women need to inherit two recessive genes for them to actually display the characteristic in their phenotype; men only need to inherit one. Even if women inherit one gene for colorblindness, they will not exhibit it, since it is recessive, so the dominant gene for color vision is displayed and she is a carrier for the trait. While she is not colorblind herself, she is still able to  pass the gene down to her offspring: even if she mates with a male with normal vision, any male offspring will have a 50% chance of being colorblind.
573883
Not always. It depends on what gender you are talking about too. In the case of some male gays I think the X in the XY chromosome could be more dominant, while in the case of some other gays, the dominant one would be the Y and hence the excessive aggro and alpha male syndrome.\n\nIn the case of female, well maybe there is some testro some where.\n\nI'm just surmising, am a happily married monogamous hetero
773953
about 40% in females, 70 % in males
1016963
I have the same problem. My understanding of genetics does not support a "gay gene"; however it is very possible and more frequent then most people think that certain males are exposed to more female hormones than normal and vice versa for females. These hormones (similar to how animals are attracted to one another) can influence whether or not and individual is attracted to males or females. Also (using males as an example) if a boy was exposed to or born with more female hormones and thus acts more feminine, he will most likely be attracted to someone who is opposite to him (hence masculine). It is more natural for feminine and masculine to attract rather than simply male or female. For example I am naturally more attratced to masculine guys, rather than feminine guys. I am not attracted to masculine women ("dykes") simply because society has taught me not to be attracted to women from birth, so my sexual preference is trained towards males...
875716
probably none, but its depends on which parents genes are more dominant