why in Matthew does is say you should call him emmanuel then they call him Jesus ?
363640
Throughout the Bible there are many names used to refer to God and it is my understanding that id you look at the original greek or hebrew meaning of these names, they relate to different aspects of God's character.
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Jesus Christ\n\nMic 5:2  But thou, Bethlehem Ephratah, though thou be little among the thousands of Judah, yet out of thee shall he come forth unto me that is to be ruler in Israel; whose goings forth have been from of old, from everlasting.\n\nMic 5:2 - But thou, Bethlehem Ephratah,.... But though Jerusalem should be besieged and taken, and the land of Judea laid waste, yet, before all this should be, the Messiah should be born in Bethlehem, of which this is a prophecy, as is evident from Mat_2:4; the place is called by both the names it went by, to point it out the more distinctly, and with the greater certainty, Gen_35:19; the former signifies "the house of bread", and a proper place for Christ to be born in, who is the bread of life; and it has the name of the latter from its fruitfulness, being a place of pasture, and as we find it was at the time of our Lord's birth; for near it shepherds were then watching over their flocks; and it is here added, to distinguish it from another Bethlehem in the tribe of Zebulun, Jos_19:15; from which tribe the Messiah was not to come, but from the tribe of Judah; and in which this Bethlehem was, and therefore called, by Matthew, Bethlehem in the land of Judah; as it appears this was, from Rth_1:1.
84545
Well according the bible we pray in the name of Jesus through the Holy Spirit To the Father. However I dont belive God is up there saying Opps you didnt address the right one of us your prayer doesnt count. LOL
189636
Does it matter?  but since you asked....“Jesus” is simply a Late Hebrew or Aramaic version of the name Joshua. This name goes back to the prominent biblical figure Joshua, who after the death of Moses led the Israelites into the Promised Land and renewed their relationship with God
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I agree with you.  If a man with a forgiven heart calls God "Father," can't I call that same man, "Brother?"  After all, if we're forgiven don't we all have the same heavenly Father?
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Two explanations exist - both reasonings seem plausible to me - and both were discussed ad nauseum in my seminary classes on the Gospels...\n\na) St. Matthew's genealogy is that of St. Joseph; St. Luke's, that of the Blessed Virgin. This contention implies that St. Luke's genealogy only seemingly includes the name of Joseph. It is based on the received Greek text, on (os enomizeto ouios Ioseph) tou Heli, "being the son (as it was supposed, of Joseph, but really) of Heli". This parenthesis really eliminates the name of Joseph from St. Luke's genealogy, and makes Christ, by means of the Blessed Virgin, directly a son of Heli. This view is supported by a tradition which names the father of the Blessed Virgin "Joachim", a variant form of Eliacim or its abbreviation Eli, a variant of Heli, which latter is the form found in the Third Evangelist's genealogy. But these two consideration, viz. the received text and the traditional name of the father of Mary, which favour the view that St. Luke gives the genealogy of the Blessed Virgin, are offset by two similar considerations, which make St. Luke's list terminate with the name of Joseph. First, the Greek text preferred by the textual critics reads, on ouios, hos enomizeto, Ioseph tou Heli, "being the son, as it was supposed, of Joseph, son of Heli", so that the above parenthesis is rendered less probable. Secondly, according to Patrizi, the view that St. Luke gives the genealogy of Mary began to be advocated only towards the end of the fifteenth century by Annius of Viterbo, and acquired adherents in the sixteenth. St. Hilary mentions the opinion as adopted by many, but he himself rejects it (Mai, "Nov. Bibl, Patr.", t. I, 477). It may be safely said that patristic tradition does not regard St. Luke's list as representing the genealogy of the Blessed Virgin. \n\n(b) Both St. Matthew and St. Luke give the genealogy of St. Joseph, the one through the lineage of Solomon, the other through that of Nathan. But how can the lines converge in St. Joseph? St. Augustine suggested that Joseph, the son of Jacob and the descendant of David through Solomon, might have been adopted by Heli, thus becoming the adoptive descendant of David through Nathan. But Augustine was the first to abandon this theory after learning the explanation offered by Julius Africanus. According to the latter, Estha married Mathan, a descendant of David through Solomon, and became the mother of Jacob; after Mathan's death she took for her second husband Mathat, a descendent of David through Nathan, and by him became the mother of Heli. Jacob and Heli were, therefore, uterine brothers. Heli married, but died without offspring; his widow, therefore, became the levirate wife of Jacob, and gave birth to Joseph, who was the carnal son of Jacob, but the legal son of Heli, thus combining in his person two lineages of David's descendants.
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No. Lots of Hebrew names for people end in El or in Yah (which is God's name). The word El in a name simply recognizes God, or how the one with the name relates to God. Try looking up the WHOLE meaning of each of these names. For instance, Michael means "who is like God?", and Gabriel means "man of God" or "warrior of God". I don't see any way that this could be taken to mean that the angels themselves are gods.
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Why do many Bible translations not use the personal name of God or use it only a few times?\n\nThe preface of the Revised Standard Version explains: “For two reasons the Committee has returned to the more familiar usage of the King James Version: (1) the word ‘Jehovah’ does not accurately represent any form of the Name ever used in Hebrew; and (2) the use of any proper name for the one and only God, as though there were other gods from whom he had to be distinguished, was discontinued in Judaism before the Christian era and is entirely inappropriate for the universal faith of the Christian Church.” (Thus their own view of what is appropriate has been relied on as the basis for removing from the Holy Bible the personal name of its Divine Author, whose name appears in the original Hebrew more often than any other name or any title. They admittedly follow the example of the adherents of Judaism, of whom Jesus said: “You have made the word of God invalid because of your tradition.”—Matt. 15:6.)\n\nTranslators who have felt obligated to include the personal name of God at least once or perhaps a few times in the main text, though not doing so every time it appears in Hebrew, have evidently followed the example of William Tyndale, who included the divine name in his translation of the Pentateuch published in 1530, thus breaking with the practice of leaving the name out altogether.\n\nWas the name Jehovah used by the inspired writers of the Christian Greek Scriptures?\n\nJerome, in the fourth century, wrote: “Matthew, who is also Levi, and who from a publican came to be an apostle, first of all composed a Gospel of Christ in Judaea in the Hebrew language and characters for the benefit of those of the circumcision who had believed.” (De viris inlustribus, chap. III) This Gospel includes 11 direct quotations of portions of the Hebrew Scriptures where the Tetragrammaton is found. There is no reason to believe that Matthew did not quote the passages as they were written in the Hebrew text from which he quoted.\n\nOther inspired writers who contributed to the contents of the Christian Greek Scriptures quoted hundreds of passages from the Septuagint, a translation of the Hebrew Scriptures into Greek. Many of these passages included the Hebrew Tetragrammaton right in the Greek text of early copies of the Septuagint. In harmony with Jesus’ own attitude regarding his Father’s name, Jesus’ disciples would have retained that name in those quotations.—Compare John 17:6, 26.\n\nIn Journal of Biblical Literature, George Howard of the University of Georgia wrote: “We know for a fact that Greek-speaking Jews continued to write ???? within their Greek Scriptures. Moreover, it is most unlikely that early conservative Greek-speaking Jewish Christians varied from this practice. Although in secondary references to God they probably used the words [God] and [Lord], it would have been extremely unusual for them to have dismissed the Tetragram from the biblical text itself. . . . Since the Tetragram was still written in the copies of the Greek Bible which made up the Scriptures of the early church, it is reasonable to believe that the N[ew] T[estament] writers, when quoting from Scripture, preserved the Tetragram within the biblical text. . . . But when it was removed from the Greek O[ld] T[estament], it was also removed from the quotations of the O[ld] T[estament] in the N[ew] T[estament]. Thus somewhere around the beginning of the second century the use of surrogates [substitutes] must have crowded out the Tetragram in both Testaments.”—Vol. 96, No. 1, March 1977, pp. 76, 77.\n\nWhich form of the divine name is correct—Jehovah or Yahweh?\n\nNo human today can be certain how it was originally pronounced in Hebrew. Why not? Biblical Hebrew was originally written with only consonants, no vowels. When the language was in everyday use, readers easily provided the proper vowels. In time, however, the Jews came to have the super
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In Isaiah 9:6-7, it says, Unto us a child is born, unto us a son is given. And what is the name of this son? The "Mighty God" in the next verse.\n\n                      JESUS CHRIST IS:  "THE GOD ALMIGHTY"\n\nIsaiah vs 6:\n For unto us a child is born, unto us a son is given: and the government shall be upon his shoulder: and his name shall be called Wonderful, Counsellor, The mighty God, The everlasting Father, The Prince of Peace.
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I agree with you. It says in the bible that "HE" is a he. It even refers to him as a "HE". Anyways just writing for moral support, keep speaking the truth.
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In Isaiah 9:6-7, it says, Unto us a child is born, unto us a son is given. And what is the name of this son? The "Mighty God" in the next verse.\n\n JESUS CHRIST IS:  "THE GOD ALMIGHTY"\n\n\nLook it up. What does it say. The Son is called what?\n\n T H E.  .  A L M I G H T Y.  . G O D.
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I never understand how x can stand for Christ. It make no sense. It is not like 2 for to,too,two or 4 for for,four.
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It does bother me somewhat that it's not called the Yule or Solstice anymore, actually.  As it should be.  \n\n"The word Xmas\nThis abbreviation for Christmas is of Greek origin.  The word for  Christ in Greek is Xristos.  X is also the letter Chi which is the first letter of Christ's name  in the Greek alphabet.  During the 16th century, Europeans began using the first initial of Christ's name, "X" in place of the word Christ in Christmas as a shorthand form of the word.  Although the early Christians understood that X stood for Christ's name, later Christians who did not understand the Greek language mistook "Xmas" as a sign of disrespect.  Unfortunately, some people of today use it as a disrespectful word on purpose.  It is unfortunate."
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The word "disciple" refers to a "learner" or "follower." The word "apostle" refers to "one who is sent out." While Jesus was on earth, the twelve were called disciples. The 12 disciples followed Jesus Christ, learned from Him, and were trained by Him. After Jesus' resurrection and ascension, Jesus sent the disciples out (Matthew 28:18-20; Acts 1:8) to be His witnesses. They were then referred to as the twelve apostles. However, even when Jesus was still on earth, the terms disciples and apostles were used somewhat interchangeably.\n\n \n\nThe original twelve disciples / apostles are listed in Matthew 10:2-4, "These are the names of the twelve apostles: first, Simon (who is called Peter) and his brother Andrew; James son of Zebedee, and his brother John; Philip and Bartholomew; Thomas and Matthew the tax collector; James son of Alphaeus, and Thaddaeus; Simon the Zealot and Judas Iscariot, who betrayed Him." The Bible also lists the 12 disciples / apostles in Mark 3:16-19 and Luke 6:13-16. In comparing the three passages, there are a couple of minor differences in the names. It seems that Thaddaeus was also know as "Judas, son of James" (Luke 6:16) and Lebbaeus (Matthew 10:3 - NKJV & KJV). Simon the Zealot was also known as Simon the Canaanite (Mark 3:18 - NKJV & KJV). Judas Iscariot, who betrayed Jesus, was replaced in the twelve apostles by Matthias (see Acts 1:20-26). Some Bible teachers view Matthias as an "invalid" member of the 12 apostles, and instead believe that the Apostle Paul was God's choice to replace Judas Iscariot as the twelfth apostle.\n\n \n\nThe twelve disciples / apostles were ordinary men whom God used in an extraordinary manner. Among the 12 were fishermen, a tax collector, and a revolutionary. The Gospels record the constant failings, struggles, and doubts of these twelve men who followed Jesus Christ. After witnessing Jesus' resurrection and ascension into Heaven, the Holy Spirit transformed the disciples / apostles into powerful men of God who "turned the world upside down" (Acts 17:6). What was the change? The 12 apostles / disciples had "been with Jesus" (Acts 4:13). May the same be said of us!
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YES\n\nIt means it is made up to try to make Jesus seem more than a the son of a carpenter.\n\nWithout that the bible wouldn't be much of a novel would it
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The term "Allah" simply means "the [one] god", implying a single Almighty deity reminiscient of the Judeo-Christian "Yahweh" / "Jehovah". However, it is significant that "Allah" is clearly NOT a personal name, while the Hebrew Tetragrammaton clearly *IS* a personal name for Almighty God.\n\nIt's not exactly wrong to call the Almighty by the impersonal "God", just as it's not wrong to call one's offspring "Child". Faithful men of the Holy Scriptures used both "God" and a form of "Jehovah" when they referred to and addressed the Almighty. However, the term "Allah" seems intended specifically to reject Judeo-Christian spiritual heritage.\n\nIf we want a familiar and close relationship, it makes sense to use the personal name of someone we love. The Scriptures encourage us to use God's personal name.\n\nThe Hebrew name “Yahweh” (or “Yehowah”) does seem to accurately pronounce the divine name. Just as the Hebrew name “Yeshua” (or “Yehoshua”) is translated into “Jesus” in English, the Hebrew name “Yahweh” is translated into “Jehovah” in English.\n\nThe important thing is to use God’s personal name in whatever language you speak, rather than insisting upon the impersonal! The name “Yahweh” is certainly preferable to the non-name “God” or “Lord”, especially if you speak Hebrew. If you speak English, feel free to use the name "Jehovah".\n\n(Psalms 83:18) That people may know that you, whose name is Jehovah, You alone are the Most High over all the earth\n\n(John 17:26) [Jesus said] I have made your name known to them and will make it known, in order that the love with which you loved me may be in them\n\nLearn more:\nhttp://watchtower.org/library/na/index.htm\nhttp://watchtower.org/e/na/
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Superstition.\n\nIt's not exactly wrong to call the Almighty by the impersonal "God", just as it's not wrong to call one's offspring "Child". If we want a familiar and close relationship, however, it makes sense to use the personal name of someone we love. The Scriptures encourage us to use God's personal name.\n\nThe Hebrew name “Yahweh” (or “Yehowah”) does seem to accurately pronounce the divine name. Just as the Hebrew name “Yeshua” (or “Yehoshua”) is translated into “Jesus” in English, the Hebrew name “Yahweh” is translated into “Jehovah” in English.\n\nSome argumentative persons will argue that the Hebrew name “Yahweh” must only be translated into English as “I am what I am”. Yet such troublemakers fail to explain why they do not translate the Hebrew name “Yeshua” into English as “Jehovah is Salvation” or “I am what I am is Salvation”, which of course their small-minded literalism must surely require with regard to the name we know as “Jesus”.\n\nThe important thing is to use God’s personal name in whatever language you speak, rather than insisting upon the impersonal! The name “Yahweh” is certainly preferable to the non-name “God” or “Lord”.\n\n(Psalms 83:18) That people may know that you, whose name is Jehovah, You alone are the Most High over all the earth\n\n(John 17:26) [Jesus said] I have made your name known to them and will make it known, in order that the love with which you loved me may be in them