Why is it that 2 = 1?
156464
u can't devide by (a-b) as (a-b)=0
391334
2&#92;2=-2&#92;2\n1=-1\ntherefore the answer is -1.
5316
If it were plus, instead of times, the answer would be 1.\nAs it is, I don't recognize it.  Perhaps my math is a bit rusty...
965967
The twos being subscripts simply means you are using binary notation. In binary computation it is only necessary (for addition) to remember that 0 + 0 = 0,------0 + 1 = 1---------and 1 + 1= 10.\n\n                                    10011\n                                  +  1110\n                                  ________\n\n                                   100001\n\n\nIn the right column, 1 + 0 = 1\nIn the next column1 + 1 = 10. Put the zero down, carry the 1\nIn the next column1 + 1 = 10. Put the zero down, carry the 1\nIn the next column 1 + 1 = 10Put the zero down carry the one\nIn the next column 1 + 1 = 10Put down the 10
1153023
It is really surprising that there are still people who think they have a PROOF for statements like 1=2, 1=0, etc.\nFirst they should UNDERSTAND what is a PROOF.\n\nPROOF is a sequence of logically correct steps. If ONE of your step is wrong then it is NOT called a proof.\n\nI think these people should go back to Primary schools and LEARN the fundamentals.
455072
3 because:\n\n1 divided by 2= 1/2\n\n1/2 divided by 2=1/4\n\n1/4 divided bt 2=1/8
674498
1+1=2. That's it. The answer for everything else would be simply 42
819996
T1=m1*a, no matter are there m2 & m3 or not.\nT2=(m1+m2)*a, no matter whether m1 & m2 are connected with a string or are in one lump, the presence of m3 being unimportant too.
1996
2+2 really is just a form of writing in which people can use to communicate univeraly. this is why it is important, but really, it doesnt matter what 2+2 equals because in the universe, it is meanless.
895900
This is essentially a maths question.\n\nP1 = P2V2 / V1\nV1 = P2V2 / P1\nP2 = P1V1 / V2\nV2 = P1V1 / P2
759105
False... y has to be 2...\n(3,2) is a solution, but not (3,1).
114500
the way u phrased that doesnt necessarily make sense. x= 2n+1 is 3   ....something along those lines. your wording confused me...my name is my messenegr msg me there and i can try and help
653428
Because -2 squared = (-2)(-2)\n\nA negative times a negative equals a positive.
249413
1 + 1 = 2(+n) ;not really a function
820036
2p^2+2p-p-1\n=2p(p+1)-1(p+1)\n=(p+1)(2p-1)\nthat is why!!!!!
539212
#1 is yes, because when you divide a number into a number that's twice as big, you always get 2.\n\n#2 1/2 = 2/4 = 3/6 = 4/8 = 5/10 etc.  You will notice that the bottom is always twice the top.
277740
Ok, well you just asked why it equals 1 instead of 1, did you mean why doesn't it = 0?\n\nHere's why:\n\nThe basic rules of exponents when the bases are the same is that in multiplication, you add the exponents and in division, you subtract them.  So think of (x^n)/(x^n).  You would subtract n - n = 0, leaving x^0.  Also, with (x^n)/(x^n), anything divided by itself is one, so x^0 is 1.