Current assests 40,000, Long term assests 100,000, Current liabilities 16,000, Long term liabilities 44,000, Owener's equity 80,000, Net Income 7,200. Compute the following ratios: current ratio, debt-to-equity ratio, and return to owners'equity.
131740
It's been so long since I did ratios, I don't know if I remember them exactly...but I think current ratio is 2.5 ($40,000 current assets / $16,000 current liabilities), debt to equity would be 0.75 (Current liabs plus long term liabs = $60,000 / $80,000 equity), return on equity would be 9% ($7,200 / $80,000).  Hope you are just using these as check figures!!!
59354
maybe this will help you http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Net_asset_value
652505
The formula for compound interest calculation is  \nFuture Value = Principal (1 + monthly interest rate*12/100 )^no. of years\nHence $100 would become = 100(1+ 1.67*12/100)^5\n= $ 100(1+20.04/100 )^5\n= $ 100 ( 1.2004)^5\n= $ 100 * 2.4924697\n= $ 249.25 (rounded to two decimals)
96441
Try this one: http://finance.yahoo.com/q?s=SYMX.PK
156190
OK, so the annual dividends are:\n\nTime 1   $5\n     2   $5×1.15\n     3   $5×1.15²\n     4   $5×1.15²×1.06\n     5   $5×1.15²×1.06²\n     6   $5×1.15²×1.06³\n     7   $5×1.15²×1.06³\n     etc\n\nDiscounting the first 5 payments:\n\n\n5v + 5×1.15v² + 5×1.15²v³ + 5×1.15²×1.06v^4 + 5×1.15²×1.06²v^5\n\n= 4.6296 + 4.9297 + 5.2492 + 5.1520 + 5.0566\n\n= 25.0172\n\nNow the PV of teh remaining payments is:\n\n 5×1.15²×1.06³( v^6 + v^7 + ...)\n=5×1.15²×1.06³v^6 (1 + v + v² + ...)\n\nInside the brackets is an infinite geometric series with first term a = 1 and common ratio r = v.  Using the sum to infinity formula, a/(1-r), we get:\n\n1/(1 - v) = 13.5\n\nMultiplying this by the  5×1.15²×1.06³v^6 bit is:\n\n13.5 × 4.9630 = 67.000\n\nHence the total PV is:\n\n67.000 + 25.017 = 92.017\n\nSince the share value should be the PV, we get $92.02\n\nHope this helps!
478574
The balance of the P & L (Profit and Loss) account at year end needs to be reset to zero for the start of the accounting New Year.\nTherefore we transfer it to Retained earnings.\n\nSo, credit Retained Earnings, and Debit Net income.
525934
The formula to use is\nc [%] = y E/K + b (1-t) D/K\nwhere\ny cost of equity \nb cost of debt\nt tax rate\nD total debt\nE total equity\nK = D + E\n\nCaveat: I don't remember if convertible bonds go into debt or equity. I'll add it to the debt.\ny = 1.3 * 6% =7.8%\nb = (0.75* 9% + 0.25 * 7.3%) =8.57 %\nt = 35%\nD = 400 million\nE = 750 million\n\nc = 7.8% * 750/1150 + 8.57% (1-0.35) 400/1150 = 7.02%
437173
1) Amount borrowed = $900\nLet monthly repayments be $M\n\nThen after 1st month\nAmount owing ($) = Interest added to amount owing less monthly payment\n= 900(1 + 0.015) - M \n\nAfter 2nd month\nAmount owing ($) = interest added to amount owing less monthly payment\n=(900(1.015) - M)(1.015) - M\n= 900(1.015)² - M(1.015) - M\n\nAfter 3rd Month\nAmount owing ($) = interest added to amount owing less monthly payment \n= (900(1.015)² - 1.015M - M)(1.015) - M\n= 900(1.015)³ - M(1.015)² - M(1.015) - M\n\nAfter 18th month\nAmount owing ($) = interest added to amount owing less monthly payment \n = 900(1.015)^18 - M(1.015)^17 - ... - M(1.015)³ - M(1.015)² - M(1.015) - M \n= 0 (as it has to now be repaid in full with this final repayment)\n\nSo 900(1.015)^18 = M(1.015)^17 + ... + M(1.015)³ + M(1.015)² + M(1.015) + M\n= M((1.015)^18 - 1)/(1.015) - 1) (On summing a GP with a = M, r = 1.015 and n = 18)\nSo M = 900(1.015)^18 * 0.015/((1.015)^18 - 1)\n= 900*0.015/(1 - 1.015^(-18))\n=  57.43 (nearest cent)\nSo the monthly repayments are $57.43 per month\n\n2) Total repaid = $57.43 * 18\n= $1033.74\nSo total interest paid = $1033.74 - $900\n= $233.74 \n\n(Flat interest rate = 233.74/900 x 100% \n≈ 25.97% over the 18 months \nThat is equivalent to ~1.44% flat rate per month)
482680
let x be the amt invested in stocks\nlet y be the amt in bonds\n.06x is amt annually from stocks\n.03y is amt annually from bonds\n.06x +.03y = 975\nx+y=18000\nsubstitution method x = 18000-y\n.06(18000-y) +.03y =975....distribute\n1080-.06y +.03y =975....combine like terms\n1080-.03y =975.....-1080\n-.03y = -105.....divide by -.03\ny = 3500\n18000-3500=x =14500\n3500 in bonds and 14500 in stocks\n\ncheck in words\n3500*.03 =105\n14500*.06=870\n870+105=975
108118
EBITDA = Profits   obtained form the Profit nd Loss statement\nShareholders Equity   ---    from the Balance Sheet (shows the Assets/wealth of the comapny)\nCashflow - showing how liquid the company is\n\nCashflow is very important\n\nOf course these would a projection of 3 to 5 years\n\n\nPS - NOAH's ANSWER IS VERY GOOD AND DESERVES TOP MARKS
123280
Revenue is $66,000 (52,000 + 14,000)\n\nThe difference is due to the fact that the accrual method recognizes revenue when it is earned (i.e. when the sale is made) rather than when the cash is received.  They received more than their revenues for April because they collected Accounts receivable from prior months.  The difference of 13,000 was already recognized as revenue in a prior month.\n\nSide note, do your own homework - we can't be there for you during your exams.  If you can't do a simple problem like this then I would assume you will not do too well on the exam unless you do it yourself.
316947
Profit on each shares (respectively)=(12/100)*8000 + (8/100)*10,000=960 + 800 =Rs 1760\nLoss on each shares while he sells= Rs[ .02*8000 + .03 *10000]= rs (160 + 300)=Rs 460\n\nTotal Earnings= Rs (1760-460)= Rs1300
150848
To figure the payment on an installment loan, use the PMT() function in Excel, if you have that. If not, the formula can be derived from the present value formula and the perpetuity formula. The present value of a future cash flow is the future cash flow divided by (1 + Rate/frequency)^(years x frequency). The present value of perpetuity (the same amount paid every period) is amount per period/(Rate/frequency). Thus a 7 year installment loan with monthly payments (frequency = 12 payments per year) and an 8% interest rate can be valued as the difference between a perpetuity starting now and a perpetuity starting in 7 years. Thus:\n\n600,000 = (Payment/(8%/12))x(1 - 1/((1+(8%/12))^(7 x 12))\nThe interest per month at 8% would be 4,000, not the 3,946 you calculate, so I am unaware of the particular detail of why that is different. The formula above results in a monthly payment of about 9,352. If you want to check it the long way, deduct the interest from the payment, and that is the reduction of principal that period, so you can recalculate the interest for the next period and see how much more the principal declines. If you carry this out to the maturity, the balance should be zero.
212330
Assets = liabilities + equity\n\nThis formula works because a firm will have certain assets, and anything that they don't owe is value for the shareholders.\n\nFor example, on a company with pure cash of 10 dollars.  If the liabilities are 5 dollars, then the leftover 5 is value to the person who owns the company.  Theoretically, if the company got sold at 100% efficiency, there would be 5 dollars left, so the owners have a total value of that 5 dollars.
132307
$25,000 according to the SEC\nhttp://www.sec.gov/answers/daytrading.htm
287839
You need to use the formula for the future value of an annuity to solve this.  This formula is:\n\nF = (P/R)*[(1+R)^K -1]\n\nwhere\n\nK is the number of investment periods\nR is the periodic interest rate\nP is the periodic investment amount\nF is the value after K investment periods\n\nIn your case, the investment period is quarterly, so there will be 20*4 = 80 investment periods in 20 years.\n\nThe periodic investment rate is the annual investment rate divided by 4:  0.076/4 = 0.019\n\nF is the amount desired after 20 years = $200,000.\n\nWe need to solve for P, the quarterly investment amount.\n\nRearranging the above equation to solve for P, we get:\n\nP = F*R/[(1+R)^K - 1]\n\nP = 200,000 * 0.019/[1.019^80 -1]\n\nP = 1,083.39598.  Call it $1,083.40 <g>.\n\nYou can use the calculators at the second and third sources below to do these calculations on-line.  The first source gives the derivation of the actual formula for the future value of an annuity (and related formulas).
34783
Future Sum Formula could be:\n\nF = P (1 + i)^n  where:\n\nF = future sum\nP = present amount (borrowed)\ni = annual interest rate, in decimal\nn = no. of yrs. to be computed\n\nF = 25,000 ( 1 + 3.63% )^3\nF = 25,000 (1 + 0.0363)^3\nF = 25,000 (1.0363)^3\nF = 25,000 (1.0363)(1.0363)(1.0363)\nF = 27,822 after 3 yrs.\n\nLet M = monthly repayment\n\n36M = F = 27,822\n\nM = 27,822 / 36\n\nM = 772.83\n\nTherefore the monthly repayment amount, M, is around 770 Pound Sterling.\n\nThere is a slight variation in the answer perhaps because they (the bank) might have used a different formula or perhaps they used a rounded figure in some of the values. But generally, this is how future amounts are computed if interest is compounded annually. O.K.?