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not 100% own a property, please state the % of the 
property that you do own. 
Monthly Expenditure 
For example, upkeep, maintenance, property tax. 
Restructured 
Select yes if you have previously agreed with your 
mortgage provider to change the terms and conditions 
of your mortgage due to financial difficulties for 
example reduced monthly payments. 
Section G My other assets 
G2 
Shares 
For example, credit union shares, bank shares, 
employee share schemes. 
 
 
 
234  [81] 
Appendix 2


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employee share schemes. 
 
 
 
234  [81] 
Appendix 2 
Please see below list of all documents needed to support your SFS. 
Please note we may request additional documentation if needed to assess 
your financial circumstances 
Section 
Documentation needed to complete this section 
(You only need to provide the documents relevant 
to your individual situation with your completed 
SFS)  
Tick when 
completed 
Section A 
My details 
No document required to complete this section 
 
[  ] 
Section B


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completed 
Section A 
My details 
No document required to complete this section 
 
[  ] 
Section B 
My mortgage 
Your annual mortgage statement 
A statement from your mortgage provider showing the 
total left to pay on your mortgage 
A statement of mortgage payments or confirmation 
from your mortgage provider of the amount of 
monthly mortgage payment 
Your mortgage provider should be in a position to give 
you with all the above information, so please engage 
with your mortgage provider.


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you with all the above information, so please engage 
with your mortgage provider. 
Print out showing current estimated value of your 
property 
[  ] 
Section C 
My monthly 
income 
Employee: proof of income in the form of recent 
payslips 
Self–employed: audited or certified accounts, business 
account statements, personal tax return or tax 
balancing statement, Revenue Form 11 
Unemployed: most recent social welfare receipt for 
each social welfare payment received


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Unemployed: most recent social welfare receipt for 
each social welfare payment received 
Retired: proof of receipt and amount of monthly 
pensions 
Proof of receipt of maintenance payments 
Proof of other income (see also Section F and Section 
G) 
Proof of monthly financial contribution received from 
dependants and/or non–dependants living in the 
household (for example bank statements). 
[  ] 
Section D 
My monthly 
household 
expenditure


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household (for example bank statements). 
[  ] 
Section D 
My monthly 
household 
expenditure 
Recent Bills (electricity, gas/oil, internet, telephone 
landline, mobile) 
Documents proving the amount spent on childcare 
and/or elderly care    
Proof of insurance (including motor, home, health, 
mortgage protection, payment protection, income 
protection, life assurance) and pension payments 
(pension contribution not deducted from salary at 
source) 
Proof of maintenance payments


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(pension contribution not deducted from salary at 
source) 
Proof of maintenance payments 
Proof of rent paid 
[  ] 
Section E 
My monthly debt 
payments 
Proof of any court payment due 
Statement related to any loans you have (credit unions, 
personal loans, credit cards, overdrafts, PCP/hire 
purchases) 
[  ] 
[81]  235 
 
Statements should include the amount outstanding, the 
payments being made, the time left on each loan, the 
arrears balance, the reason for the loan 
Section F


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arrears balance, the reason for the loan 
Section F 
My other properties 
Print outs showing estimated value of your properties 
Statement from your mortgage provider showing the 
full amount left to pay on each mortgage 
Statement of arrears on your mortgage accounts 
Proof of rental income  
Statement of mortgage payments or confirmation from 
your mortgage provider(s) of the amount of monthly 
mortgage payment 
[  ] 
Section G 
My other assets


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mortgage payment 
[  ] 
Section G 
My other assets 
Receipts and/or statements of purchase price for any 
asset 
Statement of current estimated value 
[  ] 
 
 
 
236  [81] 
SCHEDULE 5 
Standard financial statement (debt management) 
Regulation 286 – definition of “standard financial statement” 
 
[Note to regulated entities: Provided that the standard financial statement (SFS) 
meets the prescribed format, a regulated entity may improve the design and


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meets the prescribed format, a regulated entity may improve the design and 
presentation of the SFS for the purpose of making the SFS more user–friendly 
for consumers.] 
 
Information to help you with completing the Standard Financial 
Statement (SFS) 
Please read carefully 
To complete the SFS, please use the Guide to completing a Standard Financial 
Statement published by the Central Bank and available on its website [Insert 
“here” with relevant hyperlink].


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“here” with relevant hyperlink]. 
For information, all the terms in blue are explained in Appendix 1 available at 
the end of this document. Please refer to this Appendix as you complete the SFS.  
Appendix 2 provides a checklist of all documents which may be required to 
complete your SFS. Please note we may request additional documents from you 
if necessary to the assessment of your SFS.   
[Note to regulated entities: In the following pages, use the document prescribed


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[Note to regulated entities: In the following pages, use the document prescribed 
in Schedule 4 to these Regulations, excluding the information in that document 
entitled “Information to help you with completing the Standard Financial 
Statement (SFS)”, and use blue font for terms in square brackets marked with an 
asterisk.] 
 
 
 
[81]  237 
 
SCHEDULE 6 
Information to be provided to consumer in respect of debt management 
services 
Regulation 288 
 
INFORMATION TO BE PROVIDED TO CONSUMER


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services 
Regulation 288 
 
INFORMATION TO BE PROVIDED TO CONSUMER 
The following information, which is to be communicated to a consumer before 
entering into a contract for the provision of debt management services, shall 
be provided in a clear and accurate manner and on paper or on another durable 
medium. The title shall appear prominently at the top of the first page of the 
document followed by the explanatory statements.  
WHAT YOU SHOULD KNOW ABOUT DEBT MANAGEMENT 
SERVICES


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WHAT YOU SHOULD KNOW ABOUT DEBT MANAGEMENT 
SERVICES 
This document provides you with key information about debt management 
services. It is not marketing material. The information is required to help you 
understand the nature of this service and the risks of using the service. You are 
advised to read it so that you can take an informed decision about whether debt 
management services are suitable for your personal circumstances. You can


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management services are suitable for your personal circumstances. You can 
engage with your creditors directly at any point in the process. 
WE WILL CHARGE YOU FOR OUR SERVICES BUT THERE ARE 
SOURCES OF FREE DEBT ADVICE AND SERVICES 
The Money Advice and Budgeting Service (MABS) offers free advice for people 
in debt, or in danger of getting into debt, in Ireland.  
MABS can be contacted at its [insert “Helpline” or succeeding name of MABS


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MABS can be contacted at its [insert “Helpline” or succeeding name of MABS 
Helpline] [insert appropriate telephone number] which operates [insert Monday 
to Friday or applicable range of days] [insert times that MABS are available] or 
by email at: [insert helpline@MABS.ie or succeeding email address]. 
For details of your nearest office, visit the Contact MABS area of its website at: 
www.mabs.ie  
OUR SERVICE COMMITMENT TO YOU 
[Insert if relevant: WE CANNOT MAKE PAYMENTS TO YOUR


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www.mabs.ie  
OUR SERVICE COMMITMENT TO YOU 
[Insert if relevant: WE CANNOT MAKE PAYMENTS TO YOUR 
CREDITORS ON YOUR BEHALF 
We are not authorised to hold your funds or make payments on your behalf. If 
an arrangement is agreed with your creditor(s), it will be your responsibility to 
make the revised payments to the creditors].  
  
 
 
238  [81] 
YOU WILL KNOW THE TOTAL COST TO YOU OF ANY FEES AND 
CHARGES ASSOCIATED WITH THE SERVICE 
Our fee and charges will be applied as follows:


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CHARGES ASSOCIATED WITH THE SERVICE 
Our fee and charges will be applied as follows:    
[Insert details of the basis on which fees and charges will be calculated and on 
the precise services that will be provided for each of those fees and charges]  
[Insert if relevant: YOUR ADVISOR WILL GO THROUGH A FULL 
FINANCIAL ASSESSMENT PROCESS WITH YOU WHICH WILL 
COVER ALL THE OPTIONS FOR DEALING WITH YOUR DEBT] 
Your advisor will use a standard financial statement to obtain financial


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Your advisor will use a standard financial statement to obtain financial 
information from you.  
You must ensure that all information about your personal and financial 
circumstances which you supply as part of the financial assessment is accurate.  
[Insert if relevant: Your advisor will consider the debt management options 
available to you.  
YOU WILL RECEIVE A STATEMENT OF ADVICE 
This statement of advice will provide you with details of a proposed course of


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This statement of advice will provide you with details of a proposed course of 
action for you and explain why this proposed course of action is suitable and 
affordable for you.  
How the proposed options work as well as any actual or potential consequences 
of the proposed course of action will be explained to you in the statement of 
advice.] 
[Insert if relevant: AS YOU ARE AVAILING OF DEBT MANAGEMENT 
SERVICES ONLY IN RESPECT OF NEGOTIATION BETWEEN US


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SERVICES ONLY IN RESPECT OF NEGOTIATION BETWEEN US 
AND YOUR CREDITORS, WE WILL NOT CONSIDER ALL THE 
OPTIONS FOR DEALING WITH YOUR DEBT AND YOU WILL NOT 
RECEIVE A STATEMENT OF ADVICE.] 
OTHER INFORMATION YOU SHOULD BE AWARE OF 
• You may be responsible for undertaking the actions proposed and you may 
engage a third party to assist you.  
• Your creditors are not obliged to accept reduced repayments or freeze interest 
or charges.


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• Your creditors are not obliged to accept reduced repayments or freeze interest 
or charges.  
• Your creditors’ collection activities may continue even though you have 
engaged a debt management firm.  
• If you cancel payments to your creditors, you will be in breach of your 
agreement with them and your account(s) will go into arrears or further into 
arrears.  
• If you reduce your payments it may mean it takes longer to pay off your


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arrears.  
• If you reduce your payments it may mean it takes longer to pay off your 
creditors and you may pay more than if you paid over a shorter term.  
• If you undertake a proposed course of action it may affect your credit rating, 
which may limit your ability to access credit in the future.  
[81]  239 
 
• If you are a property owner, as part of any arrangement, you may be required 
to sell or re–mortgage your property to pay off some or all of your debts. Your


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to sell or re–mortgage your property to pay off some or all of your debts. Your 
ability to do so may be restricted and a mortgage may only be offered at a 
higher interest rate.  
• If you are a property owner, failure to make the negotiated payments to 
creditors could result in you losing your home.  
IF YOU WANT TO STOP USING OUR SERVICES AT ANY STAGE 
YOU MAY DO SO  
If you wish to stop using our services, you can notify the firm that this is the 
case.


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If you wish to stop using our services, you can notify the firm that this is the 
case.  
If you stop using our services, any outstanding charges will be payable as 
follows:  
[Insert a description of how any outstanding charges for services provided will 
be dealt with if the consumer ceases using the service]  
IF YOU ARE NOT HAPPY WITH SERVICE YOU RECEIVE FROM US, 
YOU HAVE THE RIGHT TO COMPLAIN  
If you are not happy with the services we provide to you, you have the right to


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If you are not happy with the services we provide to you, you have the right to 
make a complaint to us. This will be handled in accordance with our complaints 
handling process.  
If your complaint is not resolved to your satisfaction, you have the right to refer 
your complaint to:  
Financial Services and Pensions Ombudsman, 
[Insert Financial Services and Pensions Ombudsman’s address]. 
Telephone: [Insert telephone number(s) of the Financial Services and Pensions 
Ombudsman] 
 
 
240  [81]


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Ombudsman] 
 
 
240  [81] 
SCHEDULE 7 
Key Features Document for tracker bonds 
Regulation 376(1) 
KEY FEATURES DOCUMENT FOR TRACKER BONDS 
HOW DOES THE [INSERT NAME] TRACKER BOND WORK?  
This section shall include the following information:  
• 
the name and address of the product producer(s);  
• 
a brief description of the benefits promised by the tracker bond to the 
consumer, including the promised payment which applies. The compound


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consumer, including the promised payment which applies. The compound 
annual rate equivalent of the promised payment, related to the total 
investment amount, must be shown;  
• 
if there is a risk that the consumer may lose some or all of the money 
invested, a statement of this risk;  
• 
if there is a risk that the consumer will not achieve the estimated or 
anticipated return on his or her investment, a statement of this risk;  
•


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anticipated return on his or her investment, a statement of this risk;  
• 
if averaging and/or any lock–in provisions can impact negatively on the 
promised benefits, as compared with an identical investment without such 
benefits, the way in which such an averaging or lock–in provision can lead 
to reduced return on his or her investment, which shall be disclosed 
prominently;  
• 
whether or not the tracker bond will benefit from dividends payable on the


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prominently;  
• 
whether or not the tracker bond will benefit from dividends payable on the 
underlying shares. If the tracker bond will benefit from such dividends, a 
clear statement of the extent to which the tracker bond will benefit. If the 
tracker bond will not benefit from such dividends, a clear statement that 
the tracker bond is suitable only as a capital growth investment;  
• 
if the relevant credit institution or insurance undertaking benefits from any


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• 
if the relevant credit institution or insurance undertaking benefits from any 
dividend or interest income arising from the investment used to secure the 
cash bonus promised to the consumer, a statement of this fact;  
• 
if there is any currency risk, interest rate risk and/or price volatility risk to 
the consumer, in relation to the benefits promised, a statement of this risk;  
• 
the period to the date of the promised payment;  
•


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• 
the period to the date of the promised payment;  
• 
if the tracker bond is guaranteed, the level, nature, extent and limitations 
of the guarantee and the name of the guarantor;  
• 
if the tracker bond involves leveraging, a statement of the effects.  
 
 
[81]  241 
 
WHERE DOES MY INVESTMENT GO?  
This section shall show clearly the split of the investment amount (or a typical 
investment amount for this type of product if the disclosure is being made on a


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investment amount for this type of product if the disclosure is being made on a 
provisional or generic basis) into three components:  
1 
the open market value, at the date of investment, of the payment promised 
to the consumer;  
2 
the open market value, at the date of investment, of the cash bonus 
promised to the consumer; and  
3 
charges representing the balance.  
The implied compound annual rate of the amount promised to the consumer,


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The implied compound annual rate of the amount promised to the consumer, 
relative to the total investment amount, should also be stated prominently.  
The disclosure shall take the following format:  
Your proposed investment of €xx,xxx will be used, at the date of investment, 
as follows:  
€xx,xxx, or xx%, will be used to secure the promised payment of €xx,xxx 
payable after yy years and mm months. This is equivalent to a promised return


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payable after yy years and mm months. This is equivalent to a promised return 
on this part of your investment of xx% pa, before tax is deducted.  
€xx,xxx, or xx%, will be used to secure the cash bonus which may be payable 
after yy years and mm months.  
€xx,xxx, or xx%, will be taken in charges. If applicable, intermediary 
remuneration must be disclosed in this section.  
€xx, xxx             Total  
If the cash bonus is zero, the promised payment will represent a return of x.x%


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If the cash bonus is zero, the promised payment will represent a return of x.x% 
pa, on your total investment over the period to the date of the promised 
payment, before any tax is deducted.  
Where relevant, insert an explanation that the consumer’s return on his or her 
investment will be capped/limited. This explanation should clearly set out that 
the excess of any earnings over the cap/limit will be retained by the product 
producer and / or a third party.


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producer and / or a third party.  
 
The open market value referred to above is the open market cost of the benefit 
promised to the consumer at the date of investment, net of the value of any 
commission or other reward or benefit payable to the credit institution or 
insurance undertaking and/or a connected party to that credit institution or 
insurance undertaking.  
  
DO I HAVE ACCESS TO MY INVESTMENT?  
In this section, the consumer shall be informed of the limited nature of the


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In this section, the consumer shall be informed of the limited nature of the 
promised payment, e.g. that it is payable on one specified date only. This section 
shall also include the following information:   
242  [81] 
• 
whether or not the consumer can get access to part or all of their 
investment, before the date of the promised payment;  
• 
if access is provided before this date, whether the encashment will be on 
promised terms or not;  
•


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promised terms or not;  
• 
whether or not the consumer is likely to suffer a penalty or financial loss 
if access is provided to part or all of their investment, before the date of 
the promised payment.  
  
WHAT HAPPENS IF I DIE BEFORE THE TRACKER BOND 
MATURES?  
This section shall include the following information:  
• 
the circumstances, if any, in which the tracker bond may or must be 
encashed on death and the procedure for encashing it on death, if this is 
allowed;  
•


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encashed on death and the procedure for encashing it on death, if this is 
allowed;  
• 
the benefit payable on encashment of the tracker bond on death, when this 
benefit is payable, how this benefit is calculated, and whether there is any 
promised level of benefit payable on death.  
  
WHAT ABOUT TAX?  
This section shall include the following information:  
• 
the tax that may be deductible by the regulated entity from benefits 
payable;  
•


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• 
the tax that may be deductible by the regulated entity from benefits 
payable;  
• 
the circumstances, if any, in which the tax referred to above, may not be 
deductible from the benefits payable;  
• 
a general statement that a consumer should satisfy themselves in relation 
to revenue reporting requirements and the implications of non–disclosure 
where required.  
 
 
 
[81]  243 
 
SCHEDULE 8 
Information to be provided to consumer in respect of Personal Retirement 
Savings Account


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Information to be provided to consumer in respect of Personal Retirement 
Savings Account 
Regulation 378(1) 
PRSA (PERSONAL RETIREMENT SAVINGS ACCOUNT) 
  
WHAT IS A PRSA?  
A PRSA is a way of helping people provide for their retirement by saving now. 
It is a long–term investment product sold by financial institutions and 
intermediaries. It allows you to create a pension fund for yourself when you 
retire; you can vary the amount you pay into it over time and, if you change


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retire; you can vary the amount you pay into it over time and, if you change 
employment, you can continue to use the same PRSA. You can switch from one 
PRSA to another at any time free of charge.  
Types of PRSA:  
There are two types of PRSA:  
• 
Standard PRSA – where the charges you have to pay are capped i.e. there 
is a maximum level of charges allowed and where there are certain 
investment restrictions on how your money is invested.  
•


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investment restrictions on how your money is invested.  
• 
Non–Standard PRSA – where there is no maximum level of charges and 
there are fewer investment restrictions.  
 
DO YOU NEED A PRSA?  
To see if you need a PRSA you should ask yourself some questions:  
➢ Can you join an existing pension scheme in your job? You should 
find out if there is a good scheme available to you through your job. 
If not, you will need to consider making provision for your retirement


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If not, you will need to consider making provision for your retirement 
and should consider a PRSA. If you already have good pension 
arrangements you may not need to make any additional provisions or 
you may be able to top–up your benefits through making Additional 
Voluntary Contributions (AVCs).  
 
➢ What if you are in a Defined Benefit Scheme? If you have a defined 
benefit pension scheme – a pension related to your salary, for


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benefit pension scheme – a pension related to your salary, for 
example, two thirds of final salary on retirement – you may not need 
to make any further pension provisions or you may already have a 
facility to make additional voluntary contributions (AVCs). 
Transferring from a defined benefit scheme into a PRSA involves a 
risk and should only be done after very careful assessment of your 
financial position and the advantages/disadvantages for you – you will


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financial position and the advantages/disadvantages for you – you will 
be foregoing a defined salary related pension in retirement for an 
uncertain income.  
  
244  [81] 
➢ What if you are in a Defined Contribution Scheme? If you are in a 
defined contribution scheme you are already carrying the investment 
risk – your pension will depend on the contributions you make 
together with the investment performance of your fund less the


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together with the investment performance of your fund less the 
charges involved. But your employer may be making a contribution 
to the Scheme – would this contribution continue if you transferred 
into a PRSA?  
 
➢ Should you start a PRSA if you already have a Personal Pension 
Plan? You will need to take professional advice based on your 
personal circumstances.  
  
WHAT TYPE OF PRSA IS BEST FOR YOU?  
A Standard PRSA is likely to meet the requirements of most people. You cannot


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A Standard PRSA is likely to meet the requirements of most people. You cannot 
be charged more than the maximum level of charges allowed (5% of 
contributions paid and 1% per year of the PRSA assets).  
The level of charges is very important. Charges reduce the fund you can build 
up. The size of your fund on retirement will depend on your contributions and 
the Investment performance less the charges deducted. Investment performance


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the Investment performance less the charges deducted. Investment performance 
cannot be predicted, but higher charges are just like a weight handicap in a horse 
race – creating a need to produce a better investment performance just to remain 
level with products carrying lower charges.  
Charges on non–Standard PRSAs are not capped and, in most cases, may be 
higher than on Standard PRSAs.  
A second difference between Standard and non–Standard PRSAs is in the way


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A second difference between Standard and non–Standard PRSAs is in the way 
in which your money is invested. A Standard PRSA invests only in pooled funds, 
where the risk is spread across a large number and type of investments. A non–
Standard PRSA can offer you a wider investment choice. If a non–Standard 
PRSA is offered to you on the basis of the investment choice it gives you, you 
need to be sure that you understand the investment choices, and that you


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need to be sure that you understand the investment choices, and that you 
understand why you need them. This is your pension, your income in your 
retirement years. If you do not understand how your pension will be invested 
then perhaps you should consider again if this particular product is the one for 
you.  
You should keep the level of your contributions and the investment performance 
of your PRSA under regular review, so you can see if your PRSA will provide


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of your PRSA under regular review, so you can see if your PRSA will provide 
you with the pension you need.  
  
BUYER BEWARE – WHAT TO LOOK OUT FOR  
Where a non–Standard PRSA is being offered or recommended to you, make 
sure you understand the differences between this product and a Standard PRSA, 
in particular the charges and investment choices of each product.  
Beware of suggestions of better returns on non–Standard PRSAs. Predicting 
investment performance is notoriously difficult.


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investment performance is notoriously difficult.  
[81]  245 
 
Beware if it is suggested to you, or you are advised, to abandon an existing 
pension plan in favour of a new PRSA. Make sure that you understand the 
reasons why this would be the best course of action for you.  
 
 
246  [81] 
SCHEDULE 9 
Declaration in respect of Non–Standard Personal Retirement Savings Account 
Regulation 378(2) 
NON–STANDARD PERSONAL RETIREMENT SAVINGS ACCOUNT 
DECLARATION


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Regulation 378(2) 
NON–STANDARD PERSONAL RETIREMENT SAVINGS ACCOUNT 
DECLARATION 
TO BE COMPLETED BY THE VENDOR (WHETHER PRODUCT 
PRODUCER OR INTERMEDIARY). 
Name of consumer to whom a non–Standard PRSA has been offered or 
recommended:   
(Print name in block capital letters)  
Name of non–Standard PRSA offered to the consumer:  
Name of non–Standard PRSA product producer:   
a) 
I declare that I have explained to this consumer that there are


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a) 
I declare that I have explained to this consumer that there are 
differences between a non–Standard PRSA and Standard PRSA, 
and focused on the fact that the charges may be higher and the 
investment risks are greater for this non–Standard PRSA.  
b) 
I declare that in my opinion it is in the best interest of the above 
named consumer to purchase this non–Standard PRSA.  
c) 
I declare that in my opinion the non–Standard PRSA I have


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c) 
I declare that in my opinion the non–Standard PRSA I have 
offered/recommended to the above named consumer is the PRSA 
product most suited to this consumer from among all those I am 
able to provide.  
  
  
  
Signature of Salesperson:   
Name of Salesperson (in block capitals):   
Position Held:   
Name of Regulated Entity:   
Date of completion of the declaration:  
 
 
 
 
[81]  247 
 
 
 
 
 
 
Signed for and on behalf of the CENTRAL BANK OF IRELAND, 
     19 March 2025


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Signed for and on behalf of the CENTRAL BANK OF IRELAND, 
     19 March 2025 
 
 
GABRIEL MAKHLOUF, 
    Governor of the Central Bank of Ireland 
 
 
 
 
 
248  [81] 
EXPLANATORY NOTE 
 
(This note is not part of the Instrument and does not purport to be a legal 
interpretation.) 
 
The purpose of the Regulations is to prescribe Central Bank consumer protection 
requirements.  
Financial service providers to which the Regulations apply are required to


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requirements.  
Financial service providers to which the Regulations apply are required to 
comply with the requirements which apply to their business.  
The requirements generally apply in respect of customers in the State that are 
consumers (as defined). This is subject to certain exceptions. 
Part 2 prescribes general consumer protection requirements applicable to in–
scope financial service providers e.g. knowing the consumer and suitability 
assessment requirements.


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assessment requirements.  
Parts 3 to 5 prescribe requirements which apply to specific activities of in–scope 
financial service providers e.g. consumer banking, insurance and investments 
requirements. 
The Regulations integrate, update and replace requirements from a number of 
Central Bank instruments e.g. the Consumer Protection Code as amended, the 
Code of Conduct on Mortgage Arrears as amended, the Central Bank 
(Supervision and Enforcement) Act 2013 (Section 48) (Licensed Moneylenders)


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(Supervision and Enforcement) Act 2013 (Section 48) (Licensed Moneylenders) 
Regulations 2020 (S.I. No. 196 of 2020), and the Central Bank (Supervision and 
Enforcement) Act 2013 (Section 48(1)) (Insurance Requirements) Regulations 
2022 (S.I. No. 126 of 2022). 
 
 
 
[81]  249 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
BAILE ÁTHA CLIATH 
ARNA FHOILSIÚ AG OIFIG AN tSOLÁTHAIR 
Le ceannach díreach ó 
FOILSEACHÁIN RIALTAIS, 
BÓTHAR BHAILE UÍ BHEOLÁIN, 
CILL MHAIGHNEANN, 
BAILE ÁTHA CLIATH 8, 
D08 XAO6


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string_value:
BÓTHAR BHAILE UÍ BHEOLÁIN, 
CILL MHAIGHNEANN, 
BAILE ÁTHA CLIATH 8, 
D08 XAO6  
 
Teil: 046 942 3100 
r–phost: publications@opw.ie 
—————— 
 
 
DUBLIN 
PUBLISHED BY THE STATIONERY OFFICE 
To be purchased from 
GOVERNMENT PUBLICATIONS, 
MOUNTSHANNON ROAD, 
KILMAINHAM, DUBLIN 8, 
D08 XAO6 
 
Tel: 046 942 3100 
E–mail: publications@opw.ie 
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STATUTORY INSTRUMENTS. 
 
 
 
 
S.I. No. 48 of 2025 
 
 
 
 
________________ 
 
 
 
STATISTICS (WOOD INPUTS SURVEY) ORDER 2025 
 
 
 
2  [48] 
 
S.I. No. 48 of 2025 
 
STATISTICS (WOOD INPUTS SURVEY) ORDER 2025 
 
I, MICHEÁL MARTIN, Taoiseach, in exercise of the powers conferred on me 
by section 25(1) of the Statistics Act 1993 (No. 21 of 1993) and, other than in 
relation to paragraph 2 of the Schedule to the following order, for the purpose of


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relation to paragraph 2 of the Schedule to the following order, for the purpose of 
giving full effect to Article 5(1) of and Annex VII to Regulation (EU) No. 
691/2011 of the European Parliament and of the Council of 6 July 20111, as 
amended by Regulation (EU) No. 538/2014 of the European Parliament and of 
the Council of 16 April 20142, Commission Delegated Regulation (EU) 
2022/125 of 19 November 20213 and Regulation (EU) 2024/3024 of the


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2022/125 of 19 November 20213 and Regulation (EU) 2024/3024 of the 
European Parliament and of the Council of 27 November 20244, hereby order as 
follows: 
 
1. 
This Order may be cited as the Statistics (Wood Inputs Survey) Order 
2025. 
 
2. (1) In this Order – 
“Regulation” means Regulation (EU) No. 691/2011 of the European Parliament 
and of the Council of 6 July 20111, as amended by Regulation (EU) No. 
538/2014 of the European Parliament and of the Council of 16 April 20142,


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538/2014 of the European Parliament and of the Council of 16 April 20142, 
Commission Delegated Regulation (EU) 2022/125 of 19 November 20213 and 
Regulation (EU) 2024/3024 of the European Parliament and of the Council of 
27 November 20244; 
“survey” means the Wood Inputs Survey that is conducted by the Central 
Statistics Office for the purposes of obtaining information specified in the 
Schedule, including for the purposes of compliance with the Regulation.


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Schedule, including for the purposes of compliance with the Regulation. 
(2) A word or expression that is used in this Order and also used in the 
Regulation has the same meaning in this Order as in the Regulation, other than 
where the context otherwise requires. 
 
3. 
This Order applies to an undertaking that is classified for statistical 
purposes under section A, B, C, D, F, G, M, N or R of NACE Rev. 2.1 set out in


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purposes under section A, B, C, D, F, G, M, N or R of NACE Rev. 2.1 set out in 
Annex I to Regulation (EC) No. 1893/2006 of the European Parliament and of 
the Council of 20 December 20065, as amended by Regulation (EC) No. 
295/2008 of the European Parliament and of the Council of 11 March 20086, 
Regulation (EU) No. 70/2012 of the European Parliament and of the Council of 
18 January 20127, Regulation (EU) 2019/1243 of the European Parliament and 
 
1 OJ No. L 192, 22.7.2011, p. 1


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1 OJ No. L 192, 22.7.2011, p. 1 
2 OJ No. L 158, 27.5.2014, p. 113 
3 OJ No. L 20, 31.1.2022, p. 40 
4 OJ No. L, 2024/3024, 6.12.2024 
5 OJ No. L 393, 30.12.2006, p. 1 
6 OJ No. L 97, 9.4.2008, p. 13 
7 OJ No. L 32, 3.2.2012, p. 1 
Notice of the making of this Statutory Instrument was published in 
"Iris Oifigiúil" of 7th March, 2025. 
[48]  3 
 
of the Council of 20 June 20198 and Commission Delegated Regulation (EU) 
2023/137 of 10 October 20229. 
 
4.


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2023/137 of 10 October 20229. 
 
4. 
A requirement on undertakings to which this Order applies to provide, 
for the purposes of the survey and once only in respect of each such year, 
information the general nature of which is specified in the Schedule in relation 
to each of the years 2024, 2025, 2026, 2027 and 2028 is hereby prescribed. 
 
 
 
 
 
8 OJ No. L 198, 25.7.2019, p. 241 
9 OJ No. L 19, 20.1.2023, p. 5 
4  [48] 
 
SCHEDULE 
Article 4 
1.


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9 OJ No. L 19, 20.1.2023, p. 5 
4  [48] 
 
SCHEDULE 
Article 4 
1. 
Information regarding the following, as it relates to the business activity 
of the undertaking concerned, and specifying the year to which the information 
relates: 
(a) 
the quantity of coniferous roundwood from publicly-owned and 
privately-owned forests in the State purchased by, and delivered 
to the premises of, the undertaking; 
(b) 
the quantity of non-coniferous roundwood from publicly-owned


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(b) 
the quantity of non-coniferous roundwood from publicly-owned 
and privately-owned forests in the State purchased by, and 
delivered to the premises of, the undertaking; 
(c) 
the quantity of non-roundwood products purchased by, and 
delivered to the premises of, the undertaking from undertakings 
in the State. 
 
2. 
Information on the time taken by the undertaking to complete the 
questionnaire, form or other record prepared by the Director General for the


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questionnaire, form or other record prepared by the Director General for the 
collection of the information referred to in paragraph 1. 
 
 
 
 
 
GIVEN under my Official Seal, 
28 February, 2025. 
 
MICHEÁL MARTIN, 
Taoiseach. 
 
 
 
 
[48]  5 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
BAILE ÁTHA CLIATH 
ARNA FHOILSIÚ AG OIFIG AN tSOLÁTHAIR 
Le ceannach díreach ó 
FOILSEACHÁIN RIALTAIS, 
BÓTHAR BHAILE UÍ BHEOLÁIN, 
CILL MHAIGHNEANN, 
BAILE ÁTHA CLIATH 8, 
D08 XAO6  
 
Teil: 046 942 3100


key: chroma:document
string_value:
CILL MHAIGHNEANN, 
BAILE ÁTHA CLIATH 8, 
D08 XAO6  
 
Teil: 046 942 3100 
r-phost: publications@opw.ie 
—————— 
 
 
DUBLIN 
PUBLISHED BY THE STATIONERY OFFICE 
To be purchased from 
GOVERNMENT PUBLICATIONS, 
MOUNTSHANNON ROAD, 
KILMAINHAM, DUBLIN 8, 
D08 XAO6 
 
Tel: 046 942 3100 
E-mail: publications@opw.ie 
—————— 
 
 
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STATUTORY INSTRUMENTS. 
 
 
 
 
S.I. No. 52 of 2025 
 
 
 
 
________________ 
 
 
 
 
EUROPEAN UNION (WATER POLICY) (AMENDMENT) REGULATIONS 
2025 
 
 
 
2  [52] 
 
S.I. No. 52 of 2025 
 
EUROPEAN UNION (WATER POLICY) (AMENDMENT) REGULATIONS 
2025 
 
CONTENTS 
 
PART 1 
PRELIMINARY AND GENERAL 
 
PART 2 
AMENDMENT OF PRINCIPAL REGULATIONS 
 
 
 
[52]  3 
 
S.I. No. 52 of 2025 
 
EUROPEAN UNION (WATER POLICY) (AMENDMENT) REGULATIONS 
2025


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[52]  3 
 
S.I. No. 52 of 2025 
 
EUROPEAN UNION (WATER POLICY) (AMENDMENT) REGULATIONS 
2025 
I, JAMES BROWNE , Minister for Housing, Local Government and Heritage, 
in exercise of the powers conferred on me by section 3 of the European 
Communities Act 1972 (No. 27 of 1972) and for the purpose of giving further 
effect to Directive 2000/60/EC of the European Parliament and of the Council 
of 23 October 20001 establishing a framework for Community action in the field


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of 23 October 20001 establishing a framework for Community action in the field 
of water policy, as amended, hereby make the following regulations: 
 
PART 1 
PRELIMINARY AND GENERAL 
 
Citation and construction 
1. (1) These Regulations may be cited as the European Union (Water Policy) 
(Amendment) Regulations 2025. 
(2) The Principal Regulations, the Regulations of 2022 and these 
Regulations may be cited together as the European Union (Water Policy)


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Regulations may be cited together as the European Union (Water Policy) 
Regulations 2003 to 2025 and shall be construed together as one. 
 
Interpretation 
2. (1) In these Regulations— 
“Principal Regulations” means the European Communities (Water Policy) 
Regulations 2003 (S.I. No. 722 of 2003); 
“Regulations of 2014” means European Union (Water Policy) Regulations 2014 
(S.I. No. 350 of 2014); 
“Regulations of 2022” means the European Union (Water Policy) (Amendment)


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(S.I. No. 350 of 2014); 
“Regulations of 2022” means the European Union (Water Policy) (Amendment) 
Regulations 2022 (S.I. No. 166 of 2022). 
(2) A word or expression which is used in these Regulations and which is 
also used in Directive 2000/60/EC of the European Parliament and of the 
Council of 23 October 20001 has, unless the context otherwise requires, the same 
meaning in these Regulations as it has in the Directive. 
 
PART 2 
AMENDMENT OF PRINCIPAL REGULATIONS


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PART 2 
AMENDMENT OF PRINCIPAL REGULATIONS 
 
Amendment of article 7 of Principal Regulations 
 
1 OJ No. L 327, 22.12.2000, p. 1 
Notice of the making of this Statutory Instrument was published in 
"Iris Oifigiúil" of 7th March, 2025. 
4  [52] 
 
3. 
Article 7 (amended by Regulation 6 of the Regulations of 2022) of the 
Principal Regulations is amended by substituting for subarticles (3) and (4) the 
following: 
 
“(3) 
The EPA and the local authority concerned shall not later than each six


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following: 
 
“(3) 
The EPA and the local authority concerned shall not later than each six 
years occurring after the anniversary of their first being carried out, following 
consultation with the relevant public authorities and such other persons as they 
consider appropriate, continue to review and, if necessary, update the mapping, 
analyses and reviews first carried out in accordance with subarticles (1) and 
(2).”. 
 
Insertion of articles 7A and 7B into Principal Regulations 
4.


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(2).”. 
 
Insertion of articles 7A and 7B into Principal Regulations 
4. 
The Principal Regulations are amended by inserting the following 
articles after article 7: 
 
“Identification of Pressures 
7A The EPA shall collect and maintain information on the type and 
magnitude of the significant anthropogenic pressures to which the surface water 
bodies in each river basin district are liable to be subject, in particular the 
following: 
(a)


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bodies in each river basin district are liable to be subject, in particular the 
following: 
(a) 
estimation and identification of significant point source pollution, 
in particular by substances listed in Annex VIII to the Directive, 
from urban, industrial, agricultural and other installations and 
activities, based, amongst other things, on information gathered 
under the following: 
(i) 
articles 15 and 17 of Council Directive 91/271/EEC of 21 
May 19912; 
(ii)


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(i) 
articles 15 and 17 of Council Directive 91/271/EEC of 21 
May 19912; 
(ii) 
articles 14 and 24 of Directive 2010/75/EU3; 
(b) 
estimation and identification of significant point source pollution, 
in particular by substances listed in Annex VIII to the Directive, 
from urban, industrial, agricultural and other installations and 
activities, based, amongst other things, on information gathered 
under the following for the purposes of the initial river basin 
management plan: 
(i)


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under the following for the purposes of the initial river basin 
management plan: 
(i) 
Article 11 of Directive 76/464/EEC; 
(ii) 
the Directive; 
(iii) Directive 2006/7/EC of the European Parliament and of the 
Council of 15 February 20064; 
(c) 
estimation and identification of significant diffuse source 
pollution, in particular by substances listed in Annex VIII to the 
 
2 OJ No. L 135, 30.05.1991, p. 40 
3 OJ No. L 334, 17.12.2010, p. 17 
4 OJ No. L 64, 04.03.2006, p. 37 
[52]  5


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3 OJ No. L 334, 17.12.2010, p. 17 
4 OJ No. L 64, 04.03.2006, p. 37 
[52]  5 
 
Directive, from urban, industrial, agricultural and other 
installations and activities; based, amongst other things, on 
information gathered under the following: 
(i) 
Articles 3, 5 and 6 of Council Directive 91/676/EEC of 12 
December 19915; 
(ii) 
Articles 56 and 68 of Regulation (EC) No 1107/2009 of the 
European Parliament and of the Council of 21 October 
20096;


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European Parliament and of the Council of 21 October 
20096; 
(iii) Regulation (EU) No 528 of the European Parliament and of 
the Council of 22 May 20127; 
(d) 
estimation and identification of significant diffuse source 
pollution, in particular by substances listed in Annex VIII of the 
Directive, from urban, industrial, agricultural and other 
installations and activities; based, amongst other things, on 
information gathered under the following for the purposes of the


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information gathered under the following for the purposes of the 
first river basin management plan: 
(i) 
Directive 2006/7/EC of the European Parliament and of the 
Council of 15 February 20068; 
(ii) 
the Directive; 
(iii) estimation 
and 
identification 
of 
significant 
water 
abstraction for urban, industrial, agricultural and other uses, 
including seasonal variations and total annual demand, and 
of loss of water in distribution systems;


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of loss of water in distribution systems; 
(iv) estimation and identification of the impact of significant 
water flow regulation, including water transfer and 
diversion, on overall flow characteristics and water 
balances; 
(v) 
identification of significant morphological alterations to 
water bodies; 
(vi) estimation 
and 
identification 
of 
other 
significant 
anthropogenic impacts on the status of surface waters; 
(vii) estimation of land use patterns, including identification of


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(vii) estimation of land use patterns, including identification of 
the main urban, industrial and agricultural areas and, where 
relevant, fisheries and forests. 
 
Assessment of Impact 
7B. (1) The EPA shall carry out an assessment of the susceptibility of the 
surface water status of bodies to the pressures identified in article 7A. 
 
5 OJ No. L 375, 31.12.1991, p. 1 
6 OJ No. L 309, 24.11.2009, p. 1 
7 OJ No. L 167, 27.06.2012, p. 1 
8 OJ No. L 64, 04.03.2006, p. 37 
6  [52]


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7 OJ No. L 167, 27.06.2012, p. 1 
8 OJ No. L 64, 04.03.2006, p. 37 
6  [52] 
 
(2) The EPA shall use the information collected under subarticle (1), and any 
other relevant information including existing environmental monitoring data, to 
carry out an assessment of the likelihood that surface waters bodies within the 
river basin district will fail to meet the environmental quality objectives set for 
the bodies under Article 4 of the Directive.


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the bodies under Article 4 of the Directive.  
(3) The EPA may utilise modelling techniques to assist in an assessment 
under subarticle (2). 
(4) For those bodies identified as being at risk of failing the environmental 
quality objectives under this article, further characterisation shall, where 
relevant, be carried out to optimise the design of both the monitoring 
programmes required under Article 8 of the Directive, and the programmes of


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programmes required under Article 8 of the Directive, and the programmes of 
measures required under Article 11 of the Directive.”. 
 
Insertion of articles 10A to 10J into Principal Regulations 
5. 
The Principal Regulations are amended by inserting the following 
articles after article 10: 
 
“Monitoring of ecological status and chemical status for surface waters 
10A (1) The surface water monitoring network shall be established by the


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10A (1) The surface water monitoring network shall be established by the 
EPA in accordance with the requirements of Article 8 of the Directive.  
(2) The monitoring network, established under subarticle (1), shall be 
designed so as to provide a coherent and comprehensive overview of ecological 
and chemical status within each river basin and shall permit classification of 
water bodies into five classes consistent with the normative definitions in section 
1.2 of Annex V to the Directive.


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1.2 of Annex V to the Directive.  
(3) The EPA shall prepare a map or maps showing the surface water 
monitoring network in the river basin management plan. 
(4) On the basis of the characterisation and impact assessment carried out in 
accordance with Article 5 and Annex II to the Directive, the EPA shall for each 
period to which a river basin management plan applies, establish a surveillance 
monitoring programme and an operational monitoring programme.


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monitoring programme and an operational monitoring programme. 
(5) Local authorities and relevant public authorities may also need in some 
cases to establish programmes of investigative monitoring. 
(6) The EPA shall monitor parameters which are indicative of the status of 
each relevant quality element.  
(7) In selecting parameters for biological quality elements the EPA shall 
identify the appropriate taxonomic level required to achieve adequate confidence


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identify the appropriate taxonomic level required to achieve adequate confidence 
and precision in the classification of the quality elements.  
(8) Estimates of the level of confidence and precision of the results provided 
by the monitoring programmes shall be given in the relevant river basin 
management plan. 
 
 
[52]  7 
 
Design of surveillance monitoring: objective 
10B (1) The EPA shall establish surveillance monitoring programmes to 
provide information for the following: 
(a)


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provide information for the following: 
(a) 
supplementing and validating the impact assessment procedure 
detailed in Annex II to the Directive; 
(b) 
the efficient and effective design of future monitoring 
programmes; 
(c) 
the assessment of long-term changes in natural conditions; 
(d) 
the assessment of long-term changes resulting from widespread 
anthropogenic activity. 
(2) The results of the monitoring programmes under subarticle (1) shall be


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(2) The results of the monitoring programmes under subarticle (1) shall be 
reviewed and used, in combination with the impact assessment procedure 
described in Annex II to the Directive, to determine requirements for monitoring 
programmes in the current and subsequent river basin management plans. 
 
Design of surveillance monitoring: selection of monitoring points 
10C (1) Surveillance monitoring shall be carried out of sufficient surface


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10C (1) Surveillance monitoring shall be carried out of sufficient surface 
water bodies to provide an assessment of the overall surface water status within 
each catchment or subcatchments within the river basin district concerned.  
(2) In selecting the bodies, under subarticle (1), the EPA shall ensure that, 
where appropriate, monitoring is carried out at points where— 
(a) 
the rate of water flow is significant within the river basin district


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(a) 
the rate of water flow is significant within the river basin district 
as a whole; including points on large rivers where the catchment 
area is greater than 2500 km², 
(b) 
the volume of water present is significant within the river basin 
district, including large lakes and reservoirs, 
(c) 
significant bodies of water cross a State boundary, 
(d) 
sites formerly identified under the Information Exchange 
Decision 77/795/EEC, and 
(e)


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(d) 
sites formerly identified under the Information Exchange 
Decision 77/795/EEC, and 
(e) 
at such other sites as are required to estimate the pollutant load 
which is transferred across State boundaries, and which is 
transferred into the marine environment. 
 
Selection of quality elements 
10D. (1) 
Subject to subarticle (2), surveillance monitoring shall be carried 
out by the relevant public authority for each monitoring site for a period


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out by the relevant public authority for each monitoring site for a period 
of one year during the period covered by a river basin management plan 
for the following: 
(a) 
parameters indicative of all biological quality elements, 
(b) 
parameters indicative of all hydromorphological quality 
elements, 
8  [52] 
 
(c) 
parameters indicative of all general physico-chemical quality 
elements, 
(d) 
priority list pollutants which are discharged into the river basin or 
sub-basin; 
(e)


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(d) 
priority list pollutants which are discharged into the river basin or 
sub-basin; 
(e) 
other pollutants discharged in significant quantities in the river 
basin or sub-basin. 
(2) Surveillance monitoring under subarticle (1) shall not be necessary 
where the previous surveillance monitoring exercise showed that the body 
concerned reached good status and there is no evidence from the review of 
impact of human activity in Annex II to the Directive that the impacts on the


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impact of human activity in Annex II to the Directive that the impacts on the 
body have changed and, in such cases, surveillance monitoring shall be carried 
out once in respect of every three river basin management plans. 
 
Design of operational monitoring 
10E. 
(1) Operational monitoring shall be undertaken by the EPA or 
relevant public authority in order to— 
(a) 
establish the status of those bodies identified as being at risk of 
failing to meet their environmental objectives, and


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failing to meet their environmental objectives, and 
(b) 
assess any changes in the status of such bodies resulting from the 
programmes of measures. 
(2) The programme of operational monitoring may be amended during the 
period of the river basin management plan in the light of information obtained 
as part of the requirements of Annex II to the Directive or as part of Annex V to 
the Directive, in particular to allow a reduction in frequency where an impact is


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the Directive, in particular to allow a reduction in frequency where an impact is 
found not to be significant or the relevant pressure is removed. 
 
Selection of monitoring sites 
10F (1) Operational monitoring shall be carried out for all those bodies of 
water which on the basis of either the impact assessment carried out in 
accordance with Annex II to the Directive or surveillance monitoring are 
identified as being at risk of failing to meet their environmental objectives under


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identified as being at risk of failing to meet their environmental objectives under 
Article 4 of the Directive and for those bodies of water into which priority list 
substances are discharged.  
(2) Monitoring points, for the purposes of subarticle (1), shall be selected for 
priority list substances as specified in Part IV of the European Communities 
Environmental Objectives (Surface Waters) Regulations 2009 (S.I. No. 272 of 
2009).


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Environmental Objectives (Surface Waters) Regulations 2009 (S.I. No. 272 of 
2009).  
(3) In cases other than under subarticle (2), including for priority list 
substances where no specific guidance is given in such legislation, monitoring 
points shall be selected in the following manner: 
(a) 
for bodies at risk from significant point source pressures, 
sufficient monitoring points within each body in order to assess 
the magnitude and impact of the point source; 
[52]  9 
 
(b)


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the magnitude and impact of the point source; 
[52]  9 
 
(b) 
where a body is subject to a number of point source pressures 
monitoring points may be selected to assess the magnitude and 
impact of these pressures as a whole; 
(c) 
for bodies at risk from significant diffuse source pressures, 
sufficient monitoring points within a selection of the bodies in 
order to assess the magnitude and impact of the diffuse source 
pressures; 
(d)


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order to assess the magnitude and impact of the diffuse source 
pressures; 
(d) 
the selection of bodies shall be made such that they are 
representative of the relative risks of the occurrence of the diffuse 
source pressures, and of the relative risks of the failure to achieve 
good surface water status; 
(e) 
for bodies at risk from significant hydromorphological pressure, 
sufficient monitoring points within a selection of the bodies in 
order 
to 
assess 
the 
magnitude 
and 
impact 
of


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order 
to 
assess 
the 
magnitude 
and 
impact 
of 
the 
hydromorphological pressures; 
(f) 
the selection of bodies shall be indicative of the overall impact of 
the hydromorphological pressure to which all the bodies are 
subject. 
 
Selection of quality elements 
10G (1) In order to assess the magnitude of the pressure to which bodies of 
surface water are subject, the EPA or relevant public authorities shall monitor


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surface water are subject, the EPA or relevant public authorities shall monitor 
for those quality elements which are indicative of the pressures to which the 
body or bodies are subject.  
(2) In order to assess the impact of the pressures referred to in subarticle (1), 
the EPA shall monitor the following as relevant: 
(a) 
parameters indicative of the biological quality element, or 
elements, most sensitive to the pressures to which the water 
bodies are subject, 
(b)


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elements, most sensitive to the pressures to which the water 
bodies are subject, 
(b) 
all priority substances discharged, and other pollutants discharged 
in significant quantities, 
(c) 
parameters indicative of the hydromorphological quality element 
most sensitive to the pressure identified. 
 
Design of investigative monitoring: objective 
10H. 
Investigative monitoring shall be carried out— 
(a) 
where the reason for any exceedances is unknown, 
(b)


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(a) 
where the reason for any exceedances is unknown, 
(b) 
where surveillance monitoring indicates that the objectives set out 
in Article 4 of the Directive for a body of water are not likely to 
be achieved and operational monitoring has not already been 
established, in order to ascertain the causes of a water body or 
water bodies failing to achieve the environmental objectives, or 
(c) 
to ascertain the magnitude and impacts of accidental pollution, 
10  [52]


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(c) 
to ascertain the magnitude and impacts of accidental pollution, 
10  [52] 
 
 
and shall inform the establishment of a programme of measures for the 
achievement of the environmental objectives and specific measures necessary to 
remedy the effects of accidental pollution. 
 
Frequency of investigative monitoring 
10I (1) For the surveillance monitoring period, the frequencies for 
monitoring parameters indicative of physico-chemical quality elements in the


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monitoring parameters indicative of physico-chemical quality elements in the 
Table shall be applied unless greater intervals would be justified on the basis of 
technical knowledge and expert judgement.  
(2) For biological or hydromorphological quality elements monitoring shall 
be carried out at least once during the surveillance monitoring period. 
(3) For operational monitoring, the frequency of monitoring required for any


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(3) For operational monitoring, the frequency of monitoring required for any 
parameter shall be determined by the EPA so as to provide sufficient data for a 
reliable assessment of the status of the relevant quality element.  
(4) As a guideline, monitoring shall take place at intervals not exceeding 
those shown in the Table unless greater intervals would be justified on the basis 
of technical knowledge and expert judgement. 
(5) The frequency of monitoring shall— 
(a)


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of technical knowledge and expert judgement. 
(5) The frequency of monitoring shall— 
(a) 
be chosen so as to achieve an acceptable level of confidence and 
precision, and 
(b) 
be selected which take account of the variability in parameters 
resulting from both natural and anthropogenic conditions. 
(6) Estimates of the confidence and precision attained by the monitoring 
system used shall be stated in the river basin management plan.


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system used shall be stated in the river basin management plan. 
(7) The times at which monitoring is undertaken shall be selected so as to 
minimise the impact of seasonal variation on the results, and thus ensure that the 
results reflect changes in the water body as a result of changes due to 
anthropogenic pressure.  
(8) Additional monitoring during different seasons of the same year shall be 
carried out, where necessary, to achieve the objective set out in subarticle (7).


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carried out, where necessary, to achieve the objective set out in subarticle (7). 
Quality element  
Rivers  
Lakes  
Transitional Coastal 
Biological 
Phytoplankton  
6 months  
6 months  
6 months  
6 months  
Other aquatic flora  
3 years  
3 years 
3 years 
3 years 
Macro invertebrates  
3 years 
3 years 
3 years 
3 years 
Fish  
3 years 
3 years 
3 years 
 
Hydromorphological 
 
 
 
 
[52]  11 
 
Continuity  
6 years 
 
 
 
Hydrology  
continuous  1 month 
 
 
Morphology  
6 years


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[52]  11 
 
Continuity  
6 years 
 
 
 
Hydrology  
continuous  1 month 
 
 
Morphology  
6 years  
6 years  
6 years 
6 years 
Physico-chemical 
 
 
 
 
Thermal conditions  
3 months 
3 months 
3 months 
3 months 
Oxygenation  
3 months  
3 months  
3 months  
3 months  
Salinity  
3 months 
3 months 
3 months 
3 months 
Nutrient status  
3 months 
3 months 
3 months 
3 months 
Acidification  
3 months 
3 months 
3 months 
3 months 
Other pollutants  
3 months 
3 months 
3 months 
3 months


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3 months 
3 months 
3 months 
3 months 
Other pollutants  
3 months 
3 months 
3 months 
3 months 
Priority substances  
1 month 
1 month 
1 month 
1 month 
 
Additional monitoring requirements for protected areas 
10J (1) The monitoring programmes required in articles 10G to 10I shall be 
supplemented in order to fulfil the requirements set out in the Eleventh Schedule. 
 
Amendment of article 11 of Principal Regulations 
6.


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Amendment of article 11 of Principal Regulations 
6. 
Article 11, as amended by Regulation 6 of the Regulations of 2014, of 
the Principal Regulations is amended— 
(a) 
in paragraph (b), by substituting “objectives;” for “objectives; 
and”, 
(b) 
in paragraph (c), by substituting “programme; and” for 
“programme.” and 
(c) 
by inserting the following paragraph after paragraph (c): 
“(d) 
ensure an adequate contribution of the different water


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“(d) 
ensure an adequate contribution of the different water 
uses, (disaggregated into, at a minimum, the categories of 
industry, households and agriculture) to the recovery of the costs 
of water services, based on the economic analysis conducted 
according to Annex III of the Directive while taking account of 
the polluter pays principle.”. 
 
 
 
 
12  [52] 
 
Amendment of article 12 of Principal Regulations 
7. 
Article 12 (as amended by Regulation 12 of the Regulations of 2022) of


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7. 
Article 12 (as amended by Regulation 12 of the Regulations of 2022) of 
the Principal Regulations is amended by inserting the following subarticle after 
subarticle (12):  
“(13) For the purposes of this article, “basic measures” are the minimum 
requirements to be complied with and shall consist of the following: 
(a) 
those measures required to implement Community legislation for 
the protection of water, including measures required under the


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the protection of water, including measures required under the 
legislation specified in Article 10 of the Directive and in part A 
of Annex VI of the Directive; 
(b) 
measures deemed appropriate for the purposes of Article 9 of the 
Directive; 
(c) 
measures to promote an efficient and sustainable water use in 
order to avoid compromising the achievement of the objectives 
specified in Article 4 of the Directive 
(d) 
measures to meet the requirements of Article 7 of the Directive,


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(d) 
measures to meet the requirements of Article 7 of the Directive, 
including measures to safeguard water quality in order to reduce 
the level of purification treatment required for the production of 
drinking water;”. 
 
Insertion of article 18A into Principal Regulations 
8. 
The Principal Regulations are amended by inserting the following article 
after article 18: 
 
“Interpretation and presentation of groundwater chemical status


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after article 18: 
 
“Interpretation and presentation of groundwater chemical status 
18A (1) In assessing chemical status, the results of individual monitoring 
points within a groundwater body shall be aggregated by the EPA for the body 
as a whole.  
(2) Without prejudice to the Directives concerned, for good status to be 
achieved for a groundwater body, for those chemical parameters for which 
environmental quality standards have been set in Community legislation— 
(a)


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environmental quality standards have been set in Community legislation— 
(a) 
the mean value of the results of monitoring at each point in the 
groundwater body or group of bodies shall be calculated, and 
(b) 
in accordance with Article 17 of the Directive these mean values 
shall be used to demonstrate compliance with good groundwater 
chemical status. 
(3) Subject to point 2.5 of Annex V of the Directive, the EPA shall provide


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chemical status. 
(3) Subject to point 2.5 of Annex V of the Directive, the EPA shall provide 
a map of groundwater chemical status, colour-coded as indicated in the Table to 
this article. 
 
[52]  13 
 
 
 
 
 
 
(4) The EPA shall indicate by a black dot on the map concerned, those 
groundwater bodies which are subject to a significant and sustained upward trend 
in the concentrations of any pollutant resulting from the impact of human 
activity.


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in the concentrations of any pollutant resulting from the impact of human 
activity.  
(5) Reversal of a trend, mentioned in subarticle (4), shall be indicated by a 
blue dot on the map concerned. 
(6) The maps, mentioned in subarticle (4), shall be included in the river basin 
management plan.”. 
 
Insertion of Eleventh Schedule to Principal Regulations 
9. 
The Principal Regulations are amended by inserting after the Tenth 
Schedule the schedules set out in the Schedule to these Regulations.


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Schedule the schedules set out in the Schedule to these Regulations. 
 
 
Status 
Colour 
Good 
Green 
Poor 
Red 
14  [52] 
 
SCHEDULE 
“Eleventh Schedule 
Article 10J 
Drinking water abstraction points 
1. Bodies of surface water designated in Article 7 of the Directive which 
provide more than 100 m³ a day as an average shall be designated as monitoring 
sites and shall be subject to such additional monitoring as may be necessary to 
meet the requirements of that Article.


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meet the requirements of that Article.  
2. Such bodies shall be monitored for all priority substances discharged and 
all other substances discharged in significant quantities which could affect the 
status of the body of water and which are controlled under the provisions of 
Directive (EU) 2020/2184 of the European Parliament and of the Council of 16 
December 20209.  
3. Monitoring shall be carried out in accordance with the frequencies set 
out below: 
 
Community served 
Frequency


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out below: 
 
Community served 
Frequency 
< 10,000 persons 
4 per year 
10,000 to 30,000 persons 
8 per year 
➢ 30,000 persons 
12 per year 
 
Habitat and species protection areas 
1. Bodies of water forming these areas shall be included within the 
operational monitoring programme referred to above where, on the basis of the 
impact assessment and the surveillance monitoring, they are identified as being 
at risk of failing to meet their environmental objectives under Article 4 of the


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at risk of failing to meet their environmental objectives under Article 4 of the 
Directive.  
2. Monitoring shall be carried out to assess the magnitude and impact of all 
relevant significant pressures on these bodies and, where necessary, to assess 
changes in the status of such bodies resulting from the programmes of measures.  
3. Monitoring shall continue until the areas satisfy the water-related 
requirements of the legislation under which they are designated and meet their


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requirements of the legislation under which they are designated and meet their 
objectives under Article 4 of the Directive. 
 
Standards for monitoring of quality elements 
Methods used for the monitoring of type parameters shall conform to the 
international standards listed below or such other national or international 
 
9 OJ No. L 435, 23.12.2020, p. 1 
[52]  15 
 
standards which will ensure the provision of data of an equivalent scientific 
quality and comparability. 
(a)


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quality and comparability. 
(a) 
Macroinvertebrate sampling: 
All relevant CEN/ISO standards. 
(b) 
Macrophyte sampling: 
All relevant CEN/ISO standards 
(c) 
Fish sampling: 
All relevant CEN/ISO standards 
(d) 
Diatom sampling: 
All relevant CEN/ISO standards 
(e) 
Standards for physico-chemical parameters: 
All relevant CEN/ISO standards 
(f) 
Standards for hydromorphological parameters: 
All relevant CEN/ISO standards 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
GIVEN under my Official Seal, 
27 February, 2025.


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GIVEN under my Official Seal, 
27 February, 2025. 
 
JAMES BROWNE, 
Minister for Housing, Local Government and Heritage. 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
16  [52] 
 
EXPLANATORY NOTE 
 
(This note is not part of the Instrument and does not purport to be a legal 
interpretation.) 
 
These Regulations, made under section 3 of the European Communities Act 
1972 (No. 27 of 1972) give further effect to Directive 2000/60/EC of the


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1972 (No. 27 of 1972) give further effect to Directive 2000/60/EC of the 
European Parliament and of the Council of 23 October 2000 establishing a 
framework for Community action in the field of water policy. 
 
 
 
[52]  17 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
BAILE ÁTHA CLIATH 
ARNA FHOILSIÚ AG OIFIG AN tSOLÁTHAIR 
Le ceannach díreach ó 
FOILSEACHÁIN RIALTAIS, 
BÓTHAR BHAILE UÍ BHEOLÁIN, 
CILL MHAIGHNEANN, 
BAILE ÁTHA CLIATH 8, 
D08 XAO6  
 
Teil: 046 942 3100 
r-phost: publications@opw.ie 
——————


key: chroma:document
string_value:
BAILE ÁTHA CLIATH 8, 
D08 XAO6  
 
Teil: 046 942 3100 
r-phost: publications@opw.ie 
—————— 
 
 
DUBLIN 
PUBLISHED BY THE STATIONERY OFFICE 
To be purchased from 
GOVERNMENT PUBLICATIONS, 
MOUNTSHANNON ROAD, 
KILMAINHAM, DUBLIN 8, 
D08 XAO6 
 
Tel: 046 942 3100 
E-mail: publications@opw.ie 
—————— 
 
 
€ 4.50   
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
(WP-19) 30. 3/25. Propylon.


key: chroma:document
string_value:
STATUTORY INSTRUMENTS. 
 
 
 
 
S.I. No. 203 of 2025 
 
 
 
 
________________ 
 
 
 
 
VEHICLE CLAMPING ACT 2015 (APPEALS PROCEDURE) 
REGULATIONS 2025 
 
 
 
2  [203] 
 
S.I. No. 203 of 2025 
 
VEHICLE CLAMPING ACT 2015 (APPEALS PROCEDURE) 
REGULATIONS 2025 
 
The National Transport Authority, in the exercise of the powers conferred on it 
by sections 4, 10 and 22 of the Vehicle Clamping Act 2015 (No. 13 of 2015),


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by sections 4, 10 and 22 of the Vehicle Clamping Act 2015 (No. 13 of 2015), 
having consulted with the Minister for Transport and having complied with the 
requirements of section 4(1) of the Vehicle Clamping Act 2015, hereby makes 
the following regulations: 
 
Part 1 
PRELIMINARY 
Citation 
1. These Regulations may be cited as the Vehicle Clamping Act 2015 
(Appeals Procedure) Regulations 2025. 
 
Commencement 
2. These Regulations come into operation on 1 October 2025. 
 
Interpretation


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Commencement 
2. These Regulations come into operation on 1 October 2025. 
 
Interpretation 
3. In these Regulations - 
“Act” means the Vehicle Clamping Act 2015;  
“appellant” means a person who brings a section 22 appeal; 
“letter of determination” means the written determination of an appeal by a 
parking controller under section 20(5) of the Act; 
“section 22 appeal” means an appeal to a clamping appeals officer under section 
22 of the Act. 
 
Part 2


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22 of the Act. 
 
Part 2 
APPEALS TO THE CLAMPING APPEALS OFFICER 
Procedures for a section 22 appeal 
4.  
(1) A section 22 appeal shall be lodged in writing to the NTA, not later than 
30 days after receipt of the letter of determination –  
(a) 
by online form on the NTA website for the purposes of a section 
22 appeal; 
(b) 
by email to the email address specified on the NTA website; or 
Notice of the making of this Statutory Instrument was published in 
"Iris Oifigiúil" of 27th May, 2025.


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"Iris Oifigiúil" of 27th May, 2025. 
[203]  3 
 
(c) 
by sending it by post to, or providing by hand at, the NTA’s 
principal office. 
(2) A section 22 appeal shall be accompanied by –  
(a) 
the grounds of appeal; 
(b) 
a copy of the letter of determination to which the section 22 
appeal relates; and 
(c) 
such other copies of documents as the appellant wishes to submit 
in support of the section 22 appeal. 
(3) A section 22 appeal and the accompanying documents shall be furnished


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(3) A section 22 appeal and the accompanying documents shall be furnished 
to the relevant parking controller by the clamping appeals officer as soon as is 
practicable after the section 22 appeal is received, and the parking controller is 
entitled to make submissions thereon. 
(4) Where, based on the information received, clamping appeals officer 
decides to allow the section 22 appeal, he or she shall communicate that


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decides to allow the section 22 appeal, he or she shall communicate that 
determination to the appellant and to the relevant parking controller, together 
with the clamping appeals officer’s reasons for making that determination. 
(5) If the clamping appeals officer proposes to confirm the decision the 
subject of the section 22 appeal, with or without variation, he or she shall furnish 
to the appellant a copy of the documents provided by the parking controller to


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to the appellant a copy of the documents provided by the parking controller to 
the clamping appeals officer in the section 22 appeal.  
(6) The clamping appeals officer may, for the purposes of determining a 
section 22 appeal, at any time request further information, whether written or 
oral, from the appellant, from the relevant parking controller or from the relevant 
clamping operator, or from each of them. 
(7) Where the clamping appeals officer makes a request under paragraph (6),


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(7) Where the clamping appeals officer makes a request under paragraph (6), 
the appellant, the relevant parking controller or the relevant clamping operator, 
as the case may be, shall provide the requested information no later than 10 
calendar days after the date of the request. Subject to paragraph (8), where the 
relevant person has not provided the requested information within the 10 
calendar days after the date of the request (or such longer period as the clamping


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calendar days after the date of the request (or such longer period as the clamping 
appeals officer, upon request in a particular case, may have stipulated as 
applicable in that case) the clamping appeals officer may proceed to make a 
determination on the section 22 appeal in the absence of that requested 
information. 
(8) Subject to paragraph (4), any requested information provided to the 
clamping appeals officer, or any submissions received, at any time, shall be


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clamping appeals officer, or any submissions received, at any time, shall be 
furnished to the appellant, the relevant parking controller or the relevant 
clamping operator, as the case may be, as soon as is practicable after they are 
furnished to the clamping appeals officer. 
(9) Where it is considered necessary, the clamping appeals officer may 
examine, in person or in such other manner as the clamping appeals officer


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examine, in person or in such other manner as the clamping appeals officer 
considers appropriate, the appellant, the parking controller, the relevant 
clamping operator, and any other person the clamping appeals officer considers 
appropriate. 
Part 3 
4  [203] 
 
AMENDMENTS 
5. The Vehicle Clamping and Signage Regulations 2017 (S.I. No. 421 of 
2017) are amended –  
(a) 
by the substitution of the following for Article 14(b) at 
subparagraph (iv): “such other method as may be approved by


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subparagraph (iv): “such other method as may be approved by 
the NTA and published on the NTA website”,  and 
(b) 
by the substitution of the following for Article 14(c): “Where 
payment of the relevant charge is made or being made, no 
additional fee or charge for the making of the payment in any 
particular manner or by any particular means may be imposed by 
the clamping operator or by the parking controller, as the case 
may be.”


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the clamping operator or by the parking controller, as the case 
may be.” 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
GIVEN under the seal of the National Transport Authority on, 
16 May, 2025. 
 
PETER STRACHAN, 
Board Member, National Transport Authority. 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
[203]  5 
 
EXPLANATORY NOTE 
 
(This note is not part of the Instrument and does not purport to be a legal 
interpretation.) 
 
The primary purpose of the Vehicle Clamping Act 2015 (Appeals Procedure)


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interpretation.) 
 
The primary purpose of the Vehicle Clamping Act 2015 (Appeals Procedure) 
Regulations 2024 (the “Regulations”) is to prescribe the process for a person to 
make an appeal to a clamping appeals officer as stated in section 22 of the 
Vehicle Clamping Act 2015. The Regulations contain the procedures for an 
appeal, including the time periods allowed for appeals, the information and 
documents that must accompany an appeal and the extent to which the clamping


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documents that must accompany an appeal and the extent to which the clamping 
appeals officer can investigate the appeal. The Regulations also contain a 
number of amendments to the Vehicle Clamping and Signage Regulations 2017.  
 
 
 
6  [203] 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
BAILE ÁTHA CLIATH 
ARNA FHOILSIÚ AG OIFIG AN tSOLÁTHAIR 
Le ceannach díreach ó 
FOILSEACHÁIN RIALTAIS, 
BÓTHAR BHAILE UÍ BHEOLÁIN, 
CILL MHAIGHNEANN, 
BAILE ÁTHA CLIATH 8, 
D08 XAO6  
 
Teil: 046 942 3100


key: chroma:document
string_value:
CILL MHAIGHNEANN, 
BAILE ÁTHA CLIATH 8, 
D08 XAO6  
 
Teil: 046 942 3100 
r-phost: publications@opw.ie 
—————— 
 
 
DUBLIN 
PUBLISHED BY THE STATIONERY OFFICE 
To be purchased from 
GOVERNMENT PUBLICATIONS, 
MOUNTSHANNON ROAD, 
KILMAINHAM, DUBLIN 8, 
D08 XAO6 
 
Tel: 046 942 3100 
E-mail: publications@opw.ie 
—————— 
 
 
€ 3.00   
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
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key: chroma:document
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STATUTORY INSTRUMENTS. 
 
 
 
 
S.I. No. 173 of 2025 
 
 
 
 
________________ 
 
 
 
 
RURAL AND COMMUNITY DEVELOPMENT (ALTERATION OF NAME 
OF DEPARTMENT AND TITLE OF MINISTER) ORDER 2025 
 
 
 
2  [173] 
S.I. No. 173 of 2025 
 
RURAL AND COMMUNITY DEVELOPMENT (ALTERATION OF NAME 
OF DEPARTMENT AND TITLE OF MINISTER) ORDER 2025 
 
The Government, in exercise of the powers conferred on them by section 6(1) of 
the Ministers and Secretaries (Amendment) Act 1939 (No. 36 of 1939), hereby


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string_value:
the Ministers and Secretaries (Amendment) Act 1939 (No. 36 of 1939), hereby 
order as follows: 
 
1. (1) This Order may be cited as the Rural and Community Development 
(Alteration of Name of Department and Title of Minister) Order 2025. 
(2) This Order comes into operation on 2 June 2025. 
 
2. 
The name of the Department of State, the present name of which is, in  
the Irish language, An Roinn Forbartha Tuaithe agus Pobail and, in the English


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string_value:
the Irish language, An Roinn Forbartha Tuaithe agus Pobail and, in the English 
language, the Department of Rural and Community Development, is altered, in 
the Irish language, to that of an Roinn Forbartha Tuaithe agus Pobail agus 
Gaeltachta and, in the English language, to that of the Department of Rural and 
Community Development and the Gaeltacht. 
 
3. 
The title of the Minister having charge of the Department of State, whose


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string_value:
3. 
The title of the Minister having charge of the Department of State, whose 
present title is, in the Irish language, an tAire Forbartha Tuaithe agus Pobail and, 
in the English language, the Minister for Rural and Community Development, is 
altered, in the Irish language, to that of an tAire Forbartha Tuaithe agus Pobail 
agus Gaeltachta and, in the English language, to that of the Minister for Rural 
and Community Development and the Gaeltacht. 
 
4.


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and Community Development and the Gaeltacht. 
 
4. 
In any enactment or any instrument made under an enactment - 
(a) 
references to the Department of Rural and Community 
Development shall be construed as references to the Department 
of Rural and Community Development and the Gaeltacht, and 
(b) 
references to the Minister for Rural and Community 
Development shall be construed as references to the Minister for 
Rural and Community Development and the Gaeltacht.


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Rural and Community Development and the Gaeltacht. 
 
 
 
GIVEN under the Official Seal of the Government, 
6 May, 2025. 
 
MICHEÁL MARTIN, 
Taoiseach. 
 
 
 
Notice of the making of this Statutory Instrument was published in 
"Iris Oifigiúil" of 9th May, 2025. 
[173]  3 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
BAILE ÁTHA CLIATH 
ARNA FHOILSIÚ AG OIFIG AN tSOLÁTHAIR 
Le ceannach díreach ó 
FOILSEACHÁIN RIALTAIS, 
BÓTHAR BHAILE UÍ BHEOLÁIN, 
CILL MHAIGHNEANN, 
BAILE ÁTHA CLIATH 8, 
D08 XAO6


key: chroma:document
string_value:
BÓTHAR BHAILE UÍ BHEOLÁIN, 
CILL MHAIGHNEANN, 
BAILE ÁTHA CLIATH 8, 
D08 XAO6  
 
Teil: 046 942 3100 
r-phost: publications@opw.ie 
—————— 
 
 
DUBLIN 
PUBLISHED BY THE STATIONERY OFFICE 
To be purchased from 
GOVERNMENT PUBLICATIONS, 
MOUNTSHANNON ROAD, 
KILMAINHAM, DUBLIN 8, 
D08 XAO6 
 
Tel: 046 942 3100 
E-mail: publications@opw.ie 
—————— 
 
 
€ 1.50   
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
(CSU-108) 30. 4/25. Propylon.


key: chroma:document
string_value:
STATUTORY INSTRUMENTS. 
 
 
 
 
S.I. No. 53 of 2025 
 
 
 
 
________________ 
 
 
 
 
ROAD TRAFFIC AND ROADS ACT 2023 (COMMENCEMENT) ORDER 
2025 
 
 
 
2  [53] 
 
S.I. No. 53 of 2025 
 
ROAD TRAFFIC AND ROADS ACT 2023 (COMMENCEMENT) ORDER 
2025 
 
I, DARRAGH O'BRIEN, Minister for Transport, in exercise of the powers 
conferred on me by section 1(2) of the Road Traffic and Roads Act 2023 (No. 
16 of 2023), hereby order as follows: 
 
1.


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16 of 2023), hereby order as follows: 
 
1. 
This Order may be cited as the Road Traffic and Roads Act 2023 
(Commencement) Order 2025. 
 
2. 
The 27th day of March 2025 is appointed as the day on which the 
following provisions of the Road Traffic and Roads Act 2023 (No. 16 of 2023) 
shall come into operation: 
(a) 
section 4; 
(b) 
paragraphs (a) and (c) of section 11. 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
GIVEN under my Official Seal, 
27 February, 2025. 
 
DARRAGH O’BRIEN, 
Minister for Transport.


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27 February, 2025. 
 
DARRAGH O’BRIEN, 
Minister for Transport. 
 
 
 
 
Notice of the making of this Statutory Instrument was published in 
"Iris Oifigiúil" of 7th March, 2025. 
[53]  3 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
BAILE ÁTHA CLIATH 
ARNA FHOILSIÚ AG OIFIG AN tSOLÁTHAIR 
Le ceannach díreach ó 
FOILSEACHÁIN RIALTAIS, 
BÓTHAR BHAILE UÍ BHEOLÁIN, 
CILL MHAIGHNEANN, 
BAILE ÁTHA CLIATH 8, 
D08 XAO6  
 
Teil: 046 942 3100 
r-phost: publications@opw.ie 
—————— 
 
 
DUBLIN


key: chroma:document
string_value:
D08 XAO6  
 
Teil: 046 942 3100 
r-phost: publications@opw.ie 
—————— 
 
 
DUBLIN 
PUBLISHED BY THE STATIONERY OFFICE 
To be purchased from 
GOVERNMENT PUBLICATIONS, 
MOUNTSHANNON ROAD, 
KILMAINHAM, DUBLIN 8, 
D08 XAO6 
 
Tel: 046 942 3100 
E-mail: publications@opw.ie 
—————— 
 
 
€ 1.50   
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
(RSD-101) 30. 3/25. Propylon.


key: chroma:document
string_value:
STATUTORY INSTRUMENTS. 
 
 
 
 
S.I. No. 243 of 2025 
 
 
 
 
________________ 
 
 
 
 
PUBLIC EXPENDITURE, NATIONAL DEVELOPMENT PLAN 
DELIVERY AND REFORM (ALTERATION OF NAME OF 
DEPARTMENT AND TITLE OF MINISTER) ORDER 2025 
 
 
 
2  [243] 
S.I. No. 243 of 2025 
 
PUBLIC EXPENDITURE, NATIONAL DEVELOPMENT PLAN 
DELIVERY AND REFORM (ALTERATION OF NAME OF 
DEPARTMENT AND TITLE OF MINISTER) ORDER 2025 
 
The Government, in exercise of the powers conferred on them by section 6(1) of


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string_value:
The Government, in exercise of the powers conferred on them by section 6(1) of 
the Ministers and Secretaries (Amendment) Act 1939 (No. 36 of 1939), hereby 
order as follows: 
 
1. (1) This Order may be cited as the Public Expenditure, National 
Development Plan Delivery and Reform (Alteration of Name of Department and 
Title of Minister) Order 2025. 
(2) This Order comes into operation on 5 June 2025. 
 
2. The name of the Department of State, the present name of which is, in


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string_value:
2. The name of the Department of State, the present name of which is, in 
the Irish language, an Roinn Caiteachais Phoiblí, Seachadta ar an bPlean 
Forbartha Náisiúnta, agus Athchóirithe and, in the English language, the 
Department of Public Expenditure, National Development Plan Delivery and 
Reform, is altered, in the Irish language, to that of an Roinn Caiteachais Phoiblí, 
Bonneagair, Athchóiriúcháin Seirbhíse Poiblí agus Digitiúcháin and, in the


key: chroma:document
string_value:
Bonneagair, Athchóiriúcháin Seirbhíse Poiblí agus Digitiúcháin and, in the 
English language, to that of the Department of Public Expenditure, 
Infrastructure, Public Service Reform and Digitalisation. 
 
3. The title of the Minister having charge of the Department of State, whose 
present title is, in the Irish language, an tAire Caiteachais Phoiblí, Seachadta ar 
an bPlean Forbartha Náisiúnta, agus Athchóirithe and, in the English language,


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string_value:
an bPlean Forbartha Náisiúnta, agus Athchóirithe and, in the English language, 
the Minister for Public Expenditure, National Development Plan Delivery and 
Reform, is altered, in the Irish language, to that of an tAire Caiteachais Phoiblí, 
Bonneagair, Athchóiriúcháin Seirbhíse Poiblí agus Digitiúcháin and, in the 
English language, to that of the Minister for Public Expenditure, Infrastructure, 
Public Service Reform and Digitalisation.


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Public Service Reform and Digitalisation. 
 
4. In any enactment or any instrument made under an enactment – 
(a) 
references to the Department of Public Expenditure, National 
Development Plan Delivery and Reform shall be construed as 
references 
to 
the 
Department 
of 
Public 
Expenditure, 
Infrastructure, Public Service Reform and Digitalisation, and 
(b) 
references to the Minister for Public Expenditure, National 
Development Plan Delivery and Reform shall be construed as


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Development Plan Delivery and Reform shall be construed as 
references to the Minister for Public Expenditure, Infrastructure, 
Public Service Reform and Digitalisation. 
 
 
Notice of the making of this Statutory Instrument was published in 
"Iris Oifigiúil" of 10th June, 2025. 
[243]  3 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
GIVEN under the Official Seal 
of the Government, 
4 June, 2025. 
 
MICHEÁL MARTIN, 
Taoiseach. 
 
 
 
4  [243] 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
BAILE ÁTHA CLIATH


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MICHEÁL MARTIN, 
Taoiseach. 
 
 
 
4  [243] 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
BAILE ÁTHA CLIATH 
ARNA FHOILSIÚ AG OIFIG AN tSOLÁTHAIR 
Le ceannach díreach ó 
FOILSEACHÁIN RIALTAIS, 
BÓTHAR BHAILE UÍ BHEOLÁIN, 
CILL MHAIGHNEANN, 
BAILE ÁTHA CLIATH 8, 
D08 XAO6  
 
Teil: 046 942 3100 
r-phost: publications@opw.ie 
—————— 
 
 
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To be purchased from 
GOVERNMENT PUBLICATIONS, 
MOUNTSHANNON ROAD, 
KILMAINHAM, DUBLIN 8, 
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Tel: 046 942 3100


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string_value:
GOVERNMENT PUBLICATIONS, 
MOUNTSHANNON ROAD, 
KILMAINHAM, DUBLIN 8, 
D08 XAO6 
 
Tel: 046 942 3100 
E-mail: publications@opw.ie 
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(CSU-122) 30. 6/25. Propylon.


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STATUTORY INSTRUMENTS. 
 
 
 
 
S.I. No. 69 of 2025 
 
 
 
 
________________ 
 
 
 
 
EUROPEAN UNION (VALUE-ADDED TAX) REGULATIONS 2025 
 
 
 
2  [69] 
 
S.I. No. 69 of 2025 
 
EUROPEAN UNION (VALUE-ADDED TAX) REGULATIONS 2025 
 
I, PASCHAL DONOHOE, Minister for Finance, in exercise of the powers 
conferred on me by section 3 of the European Communities Act 1972 (No. 27 of 
1972) and for the purpose of giving further effect to to Council Directive


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1972) and for the purpose of giving further effect to to Council Directive 
2006/112/EC of 28 November 20061, as amended by Council Directive (EU) 
2020/285 of 18 February 20202, hereby make the following regulations: 
 
1. 
These Regulations may be cited as the European Union (Value-Added 
Tax) Regulations 2025. 
 
2. 
In these Regulations, “Act of 2010” means the Value-Added Tax 
Consolidation Act 2010 (No. 31 of 2010). 
 
3. 
Section 2 of the Act of 2010 is amended— 
(a)


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Consolidation Act 2010 (No. 31 of 2010). 
 
3. 
Section 2 of the Act of 2010 is amended— 
(a) 
in subsection (1), by the insertion of the following definition: 
“ ‘annual turnover’ has the meaning assigned to it by section 
92B;”,  
and 
(b) 
in subsection (4A) – 
(i) 
in paragraph (i), by the substitution of “Schedule 9,” for 
“Schedule 9, and”, 
(ii) 
in paragraph (ii), by the substitution of “services, and” for 
“services.”, and


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(ii) 
in paragraph (ii), by the substitution of “services, and” for 
“services.”, and 
(iii) by the insertion of the following paragraph after paragraph 
(ii): 
“(iii) 
where the reference occurs in a provision 
specified in Part 3 of Schedule 9.”. 
 
4. 
Section 5 of the Act of 2010 is amended by the deletion of subsection 
(2). 
 
5. 
Section 6 of the Act of 2010 is amended – 
(a) 
in subsection (1) – 
(i) 
in paragraph (c) – 
 
1 OJ No. L347, 11.12.2006, p. 1.


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(a) 
in subsection (1) – 
(i) 
in paragraph (c) – 
 
1 OJ No. L347, 11.12.2006, p. 1. 
2 OJ No. L62, 2.3.2020, p. 13. 
Notice of the making of this Statutory Instrument was published in 
"Iris Oifigiúil" of 11th March, 2025. 
[69]  3 
 
(I) 
by the substitution of the following subparagraph for 
subparagraph (i): 
“(i) 
subject to subparagraph (ii), a person for 
whose supply of goods (other than supplies of the 
kind specified in section 30(a) and (b) made by a


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kind specified in section 30(a) and (b) made by a 
person established in the State) and services the total 
annual turnover has not exceeded, in the current 
calendar year or the previous calendar year, the goods 
threshold,”,  
and 
(II) in subparagraph (ii), by the substitution of “annual 
turnover” for “consideration”, 
(ii) 
by the substitution of the following paragraph for paragraph 
(d): 
“(d) 
a person (other than a person to whom paragraph


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(d): 
“(d) 
a person (other than a person to whom paragraph 
(a), (b) or (c) applies) for whose supply of goods and 
services the total annual turnover has not exceeded, in the 
current calendar year or the previous calendar year, the 
services threshold;”, 
and 
(iii) by the insertion of the following paragraph after paragraph 
(d): 
“(e) 
a person who is an accountable person solely by 
virtue of making exempt supplies of immovable goods,


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virtue of making exempt supplies of immovable goods, 
supplies specified in paragraphs 6 and 7 of Schedule 1 or 
insurance and reinsurance services.”, 
(b) 
in subsection (2)(b), by the substitution of “annual turnover” for 
“of the consideration”, and 
(c) 
by the substitution of the following subsection for subsection (3): 
“(3) (a) 
Subsection (1)(b) shall not apply to a person who is 
not established in the State. 
(b) 
Subject to section 92D(1), paragraphs (c) and (d) of


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not established in the State. 
(b) 
Subject to section 92D(1), paragraphs (c) and (d) of 
subsection (1) shall not apply to a person who is not 
established in the State.”. 
 
6. 
Section 59(4)(a) of the Act of 2010 is amended by the deletion of “or in 
accordance with section 5(2)” after “by election”. 
 
7. 
Section 60 of the Act of 2010 is amended by the insertion of the 
following subsection after subsection (3): 
“(4)


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following subsection after subsection (3): 
“(4) 
Notwithstanding anything in this Chapter, a person shall not deduct any 
tax on expenditure incurred for the purpose of supplies made in accordance with 
Chapter 5 of Part 10.”. 
4  [69] 
 
8. 
Section 80(1) of the Act of 2010 is amended – 
(a) 
by the substitution of the following paragraph for paragraph (a): 
“(a) 
taking one period with another, at least 90 per cent of the 
person's annual turnover is derived from supplies to persons who


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person's annual turnover is derived from supplies to persons who 
are not registered persons, or”, 
and 
(b) 
by the substitution of the following paragraph for paragraph (b): 
“(b) 
the total annual turnover which the person is entitled to 
receive has not exceeded and is not likely to exceed €2,000,000 
in any continuous period of 12 months,”. 
 
9. 
Part 10 of the Act of 2010 is amended by the insertion of the following 
Chapter after section 92A: 
 
“Chapter 5


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Chapter after section 92A: 
 
“Chapter 5 
Cross-border special scheme for small enterprises 
 
Definitions 
92B. 
In this Chapter – 
‘annual turnover’ means the total consideration (other than consideration from 
disposals of tangible or intangible capital assets), exclusive of tax, from – 
(a) 
supplies of goods and services, in so far as those supplies would 
be chargeable to tax if supplied by a taxable person who is not 
exempt from tax, and 
(b)


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be chargeable to tax if supplied by a taxable person who is not 
exempt from tax, and 
(b) 
supplies of immovable goods, services specified in paragraphs 6 
and 7 of Schedule 1 and, insurance and reinsurance services, 
unless those supplies are transactions which are incidental to the 
taxable person’s supplies and activities; 
‘Member State annual turnover threshold’ means a threshold set by a Member 
State for the purposes of the application of the SME exemption scheme in that 
Member State;


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State for the purposes of the application of the SME exemption scheme in that 
Member State; 
‘Member State of establishment’, in relation to a taxable person, means the 
Member State in which the person has established that person’s business; 
‘Member State of exemption’, in relation to a taxable person, means a Member 
State in which the person is not established and where that person avails of the 
SME exemption scheme as it applies in that Member State;


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SME exemption scheme as it applies in that Member State; 
‘SME exemption scheme’ means the special scheme for small enterprises set out 
in Section 2 of Chapter I of Title XII of the VAT Directive; 
‘SME exemption scheme number’ means the identification number ending with 
the suffix ‘EX’ that has been assigned to a taxable person, by the competent 
[69]  5 
 
authority of the Member State of establishment, for the purpose of availing of 
the SME exemption scheme;


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the SME exemption scheme; 
‘Union annual turnover’, in relation to a taxable person, means the annual 
turnover of the person in the territory of the Community during a calendar year; 
‘Union threshold’ means €100,000. 
 
Special scheme for small enterprises where the State is the Member State of 
establishment 
92C. (1) 
A taxable person – 
(a) 
who has established his or her business in the State, 
(b) 
who makes, or intends to make, supplies of goods or services in


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(b) 
who makes, or intends to make, supplies of goods or services in 
one or more than one Member State (in this section referred to as 
a ‘relevant Member State’), in the course of or furtherance of 
business, 
(c) 
whose Union annual turnover, in the current calendar year and the 
immediately preceding calendar year, does not exceed the Union 
threshold, 
(d) 
whose annual turnover in the relevant Member State, in the 
current calendar year and the immediately preceding calendar


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current calendar year and the immediately preceding calendar 
year, does not exceed the Member State annual turnover threshold 
for that Member State, and 
(e) 
who has not been assigned an SME exemption scheme number in 
another Member State,  
may avail of the SME exemption scheme in that relevant Member State. 
(2) 
(a) 
A taxable person to whom subsection (1) applies shall notify the 
Revenue Commissioners of his or her intention to avail of the


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Revenue Commissioners of his or her intention to avail of the 
SME exemption scheme in a relevant Member State before the 
person commences availing of the scheme in that Member State. 
(b) 
A notification under paragraph (a) shall be made by electronic 
means, using such form as is made available by the Revenue 
Commissioners for the purpose (in this section known as the 
‘prior notification form’), and shall include the following 
information: 
(i)


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‘prior notification form’), and shall include the following 
information: 
(i) 
the name, taxable activity, legal form, and address of the 
taxable person, 
(ii) 
the relevant Member State or Member States in which the 
taxable person intends to avail of the SME exemption 
scheme, 
(iii) the annual turnover of the taxable person, denominated in 
euro, in the State, and in each other Member State, in 
respect of the year in which the notification is made and the 
immediately preceding year.


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respect of the year in which the notification is made and the 
immediately preceding year. 
6  [69] 
 
(3) 
(a) 
The Revenue Commissioners shall establish and maintain a 
register (in this section referred to as the ‘SME exemption scheme 
register’) of – 
(i) 
taxable persons established in the State in respect of whom 
the Revenue Commissioners are satisfied they meet the 
requirements to avail of the SME exemption scheme in one 
or more than one Member State of exemption (in this


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or more than one Member State of exemption (in this 
section referred to as ‘SME identified persons’), and 
(ii) 
in respect of each SME identified person, the Member State 
or Member States of exemption (in this section referred to 
as the ‘registered Member State of exemption’). 
(b) 
The Revenue Commissioners shall assign to each SME identified 
person an SME exemption scheme number ending with the suffix 
‘EX’. 
(4) 
(a) 
Where a taxable person notifies the Revenue Commissioners of


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‘EX’. 
(4) 
(a) 
Where a taxable person notifies the Revenue Commissioners of 
the person’s intention to avail of the SME exemption scheme in 
accordance with subsection (2), and the Revenue Commissioners 
are satisfied that the person meets the requirements to avail of the 
SME exemption scheme in one or more than one Member State 
of exemption, the Revenue Commissioners shall, within the 
period referred to in paragraph (b) – 
(i) 
register the person in the SME exemption scheme register


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(i) 
register the person in the SME exemption scheme register 
under subsection (3)(a), and 
(ii) 
notify the person of the SME exemption scheme number 
assigned to that person under subsection (3)(b). 
(b) 
The period referred to in paragraph (a) is 35 working days or such 
further period as shall be notified to the taxable person by the 
Revenue Commissioners where additional time is required in 
order to carry out checks to prevent tax evasion or avoidance.


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string_value:
order to carry out checks to prevent tax evasion or avoidance. 
(5) An SME identified person who has been assigned an SME exemption 
scheme number may avail of the SME exemption scheme in a registered Member 
State of exemption – 
(a) 
in the case of a Member State of exemption which has been 
notified to the Revenue Commissioners under subsection (2), 
from the date the person is notified of the SME exemption scheme 
number under subsection (4)(a)(ii), or 
(b)


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number under subsection (4)(a)(ii), or 
(b) 
in the case of a Member State of exemption which has been 
notified to the Revenue Commissioners under subsection (6), 
from the date the person receives the confirmation referred to in 
subsection (7). 
(6) 
(a) 
An SME identified person shall notify the Revenue 
Commissioners, in advance – 
(i) 
of any changes to the information previously notified to the 
Revenue Commissioners under subsection (2), or under this 
subparagraph, 
[69]  7 
 
(ii)


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Revenue Commissioners under subsection (2), or under this 
subparagraph, 
[69]  7 
 
(ii) 
where the person no longer wishes to avail of the SME 
exemption scheme in a registered Member State of 
exemption, or 
(iii) where the person intends to change, or cease, his or her 
taxable activity to the extent that the person no longer 
satisfies the requirements to avail of the SME exemption 
scheme. 
(b) 
A notification under paragraph (a) shall be made by electronic


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scheme. 
(b) 
A notification under paragraph (a) shall be made by electronic 
means, in such form as is made available by the Revenue 
Commissioners for that purpose (in this section referred to as an 
‘updated notification form’), and shall include the SME 
exemption scheme number assigned to the taxable person under 
subsection (3)(b). 
(c) 
A notification under paragraph (a)(i) or (iii) shall not be required 
in respect of any information to which subsection (9)(a)(ii) 
applies. 
(7) 
(a)


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in respect of any information to which subsection (9)(a)(ii) 
applies. 
(7) 
(a) 
An SME identified person shall notify the Revenue 
Commissioners under subsection (6) before availing of the SME 
exemption scheme in a Member State other than a registered 
Member State of exemption (in this paragraph referred to as a 
‘new Member State of exemption’) and the Revenue 
Commissioners shall, where they are satisfied that the person is a


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Commissioners shall, where they are satisfied that the person is a 
person to whom subsection (1) applies, confirm to that person, 
within the period referred to in paragraph (b), that the person may 
avail of the SME exemption scheme in that new Member State of 
exemption. 
(b) 
The period referred to in paragraph (a) is 35 working days, or such 
further period as shall be notified to the taxable person by the 
Revenue Commissioners where additional time is required in


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Revenue Commissioners where additional time is required in 
order to carry out checks to prevent tax evasion or avoidance. 
(8) Where an SME identified person notifies the Revenue Commissioners, 
in accordance with subsection (6)(a)(ii) that the person no longer wishes to avail 
of the SME exemption scheme in a Member State of exemption, that person shall 
cease to avail of the scheme – 
(a) 
in a case where the updated notification form is received by the


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(a) 
in a case where the updated notification form is received by the 
Revenue Commissioners during the last month of a calendar 
quarter, from the first day of the second month of the next 
calendar quarter, or 
(b) 
in all other cases, from the first day of the next calendar quarter 
following the calendar quarter in which the Revenue 
Commissioners receive the updated notification form. 
(9) 
(a) 
An SME identified person shall, within one month following the


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(9) 
(a) 
An SME identified person shall, within one month following the 
end of each calendar quarter, furnish to the Revenue 
Commissioners, by electronic means using such form as is made 
available by the Revenue Commissioners for the purpose, a report 
8  [69] 
 
(in this subsection referred to as the ‘quarterly report’) containing 
the following particulars: 
(i) 
the SME scheme exemption number assigned to the taxable 
person under subsection (3)(b); 
(ii)


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the SME scheme exemption number assigned to the taxable 
person under subsection (3)(b); 
(ii) 
the annual turnover of that taxable person in each Member 
State, or a nil return if no supplies have been made in a 
Member State, during that calendar quarter. 
(b) 
For the purposes of paragraph (a)(ii), where a registered Member 
State of exemption applies different Member State annual 
turnover thresholds to different categories of taxable activity, the


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turnover thresholds to different categories of taxable activity, the 
SME identified person shall specify, in the quarterly report, the 
person’s annual turnover in respect of each category of taxable 
activity. 
(c) 
Where supplies have been made by an SME identified person 
using a currency other than the euro, the exchange rate to be used 
for the purpose of expressing the corresponding amount in euro 
on the quarterly report shall be that published by the European


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on the quarterly report shall be that published by the European 
Central Bank on the first day of the calendar year to which the 
report relates or, if there is no publication on that date, on the next 
date of publication. 
(10) (a) 
Where, during a calendar year, the annual turnover of an SME 
identified person exceeds the Union threshold, the person shall, 
within 15 working days of the date on which the threshold was 
exceeded – 
(i) 
notify the Revenue Commissioners under subsection (6)


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exceeded – 
(i) 
notify the Revenue Commissioners under subsection (6) 
that the threshold was exceeded, and 
(ii) 
furnish a report to the Revenue Commissioners for the 
period from the beginning of the calendar quarter in which 
the threshold was exceeded to the date on which the 
threshold was exceeded. 
(b) 
Subsection (9) shall, with all necessary modifications, apply to a 
report under paragraph (a) as it applies to a report under that 
subsection. 
(c)


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string_value:
report under paragraph (a) as it applies to a report under that 
subsection. 
(c) 
The Revenue Commissioners shall cancel the SME exemption 
scheme number which has been assigned to an SME identified 
person 
under 
subsection 
(3)(b) 
where 
the 
Revenue 
Commissioners have been notified under paragraph (a) that the 
annual turnover of the person exceeds the Union threshold. 
(11) The Revenue Commissioners shall amend the SME exemption scheme


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(11) The Revenue Commissioners shall amend the SME exemption scheme 
register, in respect of an SME identified person, as appropriate, where – 
(a) 
a Member State of exemption 
notifies the Revenue 
Commissioners that the person is not eligible for the SME 
exemption scheme, or the SME exemption scheme has ceased to 
apply, in that Member State, or 
[69]  9 
 
(b) 
the person notifies to the Revenue Commissioners of any of the 
matters referred to in subsection (6)(a)(i) to (iii).


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matters referred to in subsection (6)(a)(i) to (iii). 
 
Special scheme for small enterprises not established in the State where the 
State is the Member State of exemption 
92D. (1) 
Section 6(3)(b) shall not apply to a taxable person – 
(a) 
who is established in the Community and not established in the 
State, 
(b) 
who makes, or intends to make, supplies of taxable goods and 
services in the course or furtherance of the person’s business in 
the State, 
(c)


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services in the course or furtherance of the person’s business in 
the State, 
(c) 
who has notified the competent authorities in that person’s 
Member State of establishment of the person’s intention to avail 
of the SME exemption scheme in the State and has received 
confirmation from that competent authority that that person may 
avail of the scheme in the State, 
(d) 
who has been provided with an SME exemption number by the 
competent authority of that person’s Member State of


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string_value:
competent authority of that person’s Member State of 
establishment as a result of a notification referred to in paragraph 
(c), and 
(e) 
whose annual turnover does not exceed the Union threshold in the 
year in which the notification referred to in paragraph (c) was 
made, or in the year preceding that year. 
(2) Notwithstanding section 6(3), a person established in another Member 
State who engages in the supply, within the State, of taxable goods and services


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State who engages in the supply, within the State, of taxable goods and services 
and does not avail of SME exemption scheme shall be deemed to have elected 
under section 6(1) to be an accountable person for the purpose of this Act.”. 
 
10. Schedule 9 of the Act of 2010 is amended by the insertion of the 
following Part after Part 2: 
 
“Part 3 
Section 92B 
Section 92C 
Section 92D”. 
 
 
 
 
 
 
10  [69] 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
GIVEN under my Official Seal, 
6 March, 2025. 
 
PASCHAL DONOHOE,


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10  [69] 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
GIVEN under my Official Seal, 
6 March, 2025. 
 
PASCHAL DONOHOE, 
Minister for Finance. 
 
 
 
 
 
 
[69]  11 
 
EXPLANATORY NOTE 
 
(This note is not part of the Instrument and does not purport to be a legal 
interpretation.) 
 
These Regulations transpose into Irish VAT law Council Directive (EU) 
2020/285, which amends Council Directive 2006/112/EC (hereinafter ‘the VAT 
Directive’) on the common system of value-added tax.


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Directive’) on the common system of value-added tax. 
With the growth in cross border trade, small enterprises bear proportionally 
higher compliance costs than large businesses due to the more limited resources 
available to them, and the complexity and differences between the national VAT 
systems. In this context, Council Directive (EU) 2020/285 introduced the special 
scheme for small enterprises (hereinafter ‘SME scheme’), in Title XII, Chapter


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scheme for small enterprises (hereinafter ‘SME scheme’), in Title XII, Chapter 
1, of the VAT Directive, designed to ease the burden of compliance on SMEs in 
dealing with VAT through the application of the VAT exemption on the supplies 
of goods and services, resulting in less compliance work. 
This set of Regulations transposes Council Directive 2020/285 into Irish law by 
way of inserting new provisions in a new Chapter 5 of Part 10, and consequential


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way of inserting new provisions in a new Chapter 5 of Part 10, and consequential 
amendments to sections 2, 5, 6, 59, 60, and 80 – into the Value-Added Tax 
Consolidation Act 2010 (No. 31 of 2010).  Under the new provisions, subject to 
certain conditions, small enterprises may avail of SME schemes in EU member 
states other than where they are established (hereinafter ‘cross border SME 
scheme’). The consequential amendments amend the approach to assessing the


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scheme’). The consequential amendments amend the approach to assessing the 
eligibility of small enterprises established in Ireland to avail of the scheme in 
Ireland. 
Regulation 1 gives the title of the Regulations.  
Regulation 2 defines, for the purposes of these Regulations, the Act of 2010 as 
meaning the Value-Added Tax Consolidation Act 2010. 
Regulation 3 inserts a new definition of annual turnover used for assessing VAT


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Regulation 3 inserts a new definition of annual turnover used for assessing VAT 
thresholds and inserts a new subparagraph in paragraph 4A of section 2 that 
references a new Part 3 in Schedule 9 which removes Northern Ireland from the 
definition of a Member State for the operation of the SME scheme. 
Regulation 4 amends section 5 of the Value-Added Tax Consolidation Act 2010 
to align it with the new approach to assessing eligibility for availing of VAT 
thresholds.


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string_value:
to align it with the new approach to assessing eligibility for availing of VAT 
thresholds. 
Regulation 5 amends section 6 of the Value-Added Tax Consolidation Act 2010 
to provide for a new approach to assessing the eligibility for availing of VAT 
thresholds. 
Regulation 6 deletes a reference to section 5(2) as a consequence of Regulation 
4. 
Regulation 7 limits the VAT deductibility entitlements for persons availing of 
the cross-border SME Scheme.


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the cross-border SME Scheme. 
Regulation 8 provides for a new approach to assessing eligibility for accounting 
for VAT on the ‘money received basis’. 
12  [69] 
 
Regulation 9 inserts Chapter 5 (‘Cross border special scheme for small 
enterprises’) into Part 10 of the VAT Consolidation Act 2010.  The new chapter 
comprises several sections: 
Section 92B concerns the interpretation of terms used in the Chapter; 
Section 92C(1) sets out the criteria to be met for small enterprises


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Section 92C(1) sets out the criteria to be met for small enterprises 
established in Ireland to be eligible for a cross border exemption in another 
Member State; 
Section 92C(2) imposes an obligation on small enterprises who wish to 
avail of a cross border exemption to notify Revenue; 
Section 92C(3) sets out the requirement on Revenue to established and 
maintain a register of persons established in Ireland availing of the cross 
border SME scheme;


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maintain a register of persons established in Ireland availing of the cross 
border SME scheme; 
Section 92C(4) provides for the requirement for qualifying small 
enterprises availing of the cross border SME scheme to be issued with a 
SME exemption scheme number by Revenue; 
Section 92C(5) sets out the date from when small enterprises established 
in Ireland can avail of the cross border SME scheme; 
Section 92C(6) imposes an obligation on small enterprises established in


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string_value:
Section 92C(6) imposes an obligation on small enterprises established in 
Ireland availing of the cross border SME scheme to update information 
when changes to the operation of the cross-border SME scheme occur; 
Section 92C(7) provides a mechanism for small enterprises established in 
Ireland to avail of the cross border SME exemption in additional Member 
States; 
Section 92C(8) sets out the timeframe for when a small enterprise availing


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string_value:
States; 
Section 92C(8) sets out the timeframe for when a small enterprise availing 
of the cross border SME exemption can voluntarily cease availing of it in 
a Member State; 
Section 92C(9) imposes a quarterly reporting obligation on small 
enterprises established in Ireland availing of the cross border SME 
scheme; 
Section 92C(10) imposes reporting obligations on small enterprises 
established in Ireland availing of the cross border SME scheme once they 
exceed the union threshold;


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string_value:
exceed the union threshold; 
Section 92C(11) sets out Revenues obligations to update the register 
established under Section 92C(3) when advised of changes in 
circumstances; 
Section 92D(1) sets out the criteria to be met for small enterprises 
established in another Member State to be eligible for a cross border 
exemption in Ireland; and 
Section 92D(2) provides that a small enterprise established in another 
Member State not opting to avail of the cross-border SME scheme in the


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string_value:
Member State not opting to avail of the cross-border SME scheme in the 
State will be deemed to have elected to register for VAT. 
Regulation 10 inserts Part 3 in Schedule 9 to remove supplies of goods and 
services in Northern Ireland from the scope of the cross-border SME scheme. 
[69]  13 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
BAILE ÁTHA CLIATH 
ARNA FHOILSIÚ AG OIFIG AN tSOLÁTHAIR 
Le ceannach díreach ó 
FOILSEACHÁIN RIALTAIS, 
BÓTHAR BHAILE UÍ BHEOLÁIN, 
CILL MHAIGHNEANN,


key: chroma:document
string_value:
Le ceannach díreach ó 
FOILSEACHÁIN RIALTAIS, 
BÓTHAR BHAILE UÍ BHEOLÁIN, 
CILL MHAIGHNEANN, 
BAILE ÁTHA CLIATH 8, 
D08 XAO6  
 
Teil: 046 942 3100 
r-phost: publications@opw.ie 
—————— 
 
 
DUBLIN 
PUBLISHED BY THE STATIONERY OFFICE 
To be purchased from 
GOVERNMENT PUBLICATIONS, 
MOUNTSHANNON ROAD, 
KILMAINHAM, DUBLIN 8, 
D08 XAO6 
 
Tel: 046 942 3100 
E-mail: publications@opw.ie 
—————— 
 
 
€ 3.50   
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
(PRDDF-216) 30. 3/25. Propylon.


key: chroma:document
string_value:
STATUTORY INSTRUMENTS. 
 
 
 
 
S.I. No. 193 of 2025 
 
 
 
 
________________ 
 
 
 
 
ROAD TRAFFIC (LICENSING OF DRIVERS) (AMENDMENT) 
REGULATIONS 2025 
 
 
 
2  [193] 
S.I. No. 193 of 2025 
 
ROAD TRAFFIC (LICENSING OF DRIVERS) (AMENDMENT) 
REGULATIONS 2025 
 
I, DARRAGH O’BRIEN, Minister for Transport, in exercise of the powers 
conferred on me by sections 5(1), 22, 23(2), 35 and 42 of the Road Traffic Act 
1961 (No. 24 of 1961) and the National Roads and Road Traffic (Transfer of


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1961 (No. 24 of 1961) and the National Roads and Road Traffic (Transfer of 
Departmental Administration and Ministerial Functions) Order 2002 (S.I. No. 
298 of 2002) (as adapted by the Transport, Tourism and Sport (Alteration of 
Name of Department and Title of Minister) Order 2020 (S.I. No. 351 of 2020), 
hereby make the following regulations: 
 
1. 
These Regulations may be cited as the Road Traffic (Licensing of 
Drivers) (Amendment) Regulations 2025. 
 
2.


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Drivers) (Amendment) Regulations 2025. 
 
2. 
These Regulations come into operation on 19 May 2025. 
 
3. 
The Road Traffic (Licensing of Drivers) Regulations 2006 (S.I. No. 537 
of 2006) are amended – 
(a) 
in Regulation 3(1), by the insertion of the following definitions: 
“ ‘Act of 1956’ means Irish Nationality and Citizenship Act 1956 
(No. 26 of 1956); 
‘Act of 2010’ means Social Welfare and Pensions Act 2010 (No. 
37 of 2010);


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(No. 26 of 1956); 
‘Act of 2010’ means Social Welfare and Pensions Act 2010 (No. 
37 of 2010); 
‘Act of 2015’ means International Protection Act 2015 (No. 66 of 
2015);”, 
(b) 
in Regulation 12, by the insertion of the following paragraph after 
paragraph (4): 
“(4A) An application for a driving licence made on or after 
19 May 2025 shall be accompanied by evidence that the applicant 
has a legal right to reside in the State specified in Regulation 
54A.”, 
(c)


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has a legal right to reside in the State specified in Regulation 
54A.”, 
(c) 
by the insertion of the following regulation after Regulation 14: 
“Revocation of driving licence – expiry of right to reside in 
State 
14A. (1) Where a person provides a document specified in 
Regulation 54A(1)(i) with his or her application for a licence, as 
evidence that he or she has a legal right to reside in the State, and 
such document expires, the licence shall, subject to paragraph (2), 
stand revoked –


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string_value:
such document expires, the licence shall, subject to paragraph (2), 
stand revoked – 
Notice of the making of this Statutory Instrument was published in 
"Iris Oifigiúil" of 16th May, 2025. 
[193]  3 
(a) 
where the document expires after the second 
anniversary of the grant of the licence, on the 
day 30 days after the date of such expiration, or, 
(b) 
where the document expires before the second 
anniversary of the grant of the licence, on the


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(b) 
where the document expires before the second 
anniversary of the grant of the licence, on the 
day 30 days after the second anniversary of the 
grant of the licence. 
(2) Where, during the period of 30 days referred to in 
paragraph (1) the applicant provides the licensing authority with 
evidence specified in Regulation 54A that he or she has, at that 
time, a legal right to reside in the State that evidence shall be 
deemed to be evidence provided by the person with his or her


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string_value:
deemed to be evidence provided by the person with his or her 
application for an Irish driving licence. 
Revocation of driving licence – failure to meet requirements 
or fraud 
14B. (1) Where, after a driving licence is granted, the licensing 
authority determines that any document provided with the 
application was, at the time of the application, invalid or no longer 
in force or was or is false or misleading in any material respect


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string_value:
in force or was or is false or misleading in any material respect 
the licensing authority shall notify the licence holder at his or her 
last known address. 
(2) Where the licensing authority notifies a licence holder in 
accordance with paragraph (1) the licence shall stand revoked on 
the date on which the Minister notifies the holder of the Irish 
driving licence.”, 
(d) 
in Regulation 19(3), by the insertion of “that was not revoked 
under Regulation 21A(2)” after “preceding the date of


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under Regulation 21A(2)” after “preceding the date of 
application”, 
(e) 
in Regulation 20, by the insertion of the following paragraph after 
paragraph (5): 
“(5A) 
An application for a learner permit made on or 
after 19 May 2025 shall be accompanied by evidence that the 
applicant has a legal right to reside in the State specified in 
Regulation 54A.”, 
(f) 
by the insertion of the following regulation after Regulation 21: 
“Revocation of learner permit – failure to meet requirements


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string_value:
“Revocation of learner permit – failure to meet requirements 
or fraud 
21A. (1) Where, after a learner permit is granted, the licensing 
authority determines that any document provided with the 
application for the permit was, at the time of the application, 
invalid or no longer in force or is or was false or misleading in 
any material respect the licensing authority shall notify the permit 
holder at his or her last known address.


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string_value:
holder at his or her last known address. 
(2) Where the licensing authority notifies a permit holder in 
accordance with paragraph (1) the permit shall stand revoked on 
4  [193] 
the date on which the Minister notifies the holder of the learner 
permit.”, 
(g) 
in Regulation 27(1), by the insertion of “other than a licence 
revoked under Regulation 14B(2)” after “the holder of a driving 
licence”, 
(h) 
by the substitution of the following table for the table to 
Regulation 32(2)(b): 
“


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string_value:
(h) 
by the substitution of the following table for the table to 
Regulation 32(2)(b): 
“ 
TABLE 
Code 
(1) 
Additional information/restrictions 
(2) 
01 
Sight correction and / or protection 
02 
Hearing aid / communication aid 
03 
Prosthesis / orthosis for the limbs 
61 
Limited to day time journeys 
62(30) Limited to journeys within a radius of 30 km 
from holder’s place of residence 
63 
Limited to driving without passengers 
64(80) Limited to journeys with a speed not greater


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string_value:
63 
Limited to driving without passengers 
64(80) Limited to journeys with a speed not greater 
than 80 km/h 
65 
Limited to driving solely when accompanied 
by a holder of a driving licence of at least the 
equivalent category 
66 
Limited to driving without trailer 
67 
Not permitted to drive on motorways 
[193]  5 
68 
Limited to driving without alcohol 
69 
Restricted to driving vehicles equipped with 
an alcohol interlock in accordance with EN 
50463 
70


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string_value:
an alcohol interlock in accordance with EN 
50463 
70 
Exchange of recognised driving licence 
71 
Duplicate licence 
79 
Restricted to vehicles which comply with the 
specifications indicated in brackets 
79.01 
Restricted to two-wheel vehicles with or 
without side-car 
79.02 
Restricted to category AM vehicles of the 
three-wheel or light quadricycle type 
79.03 
Restricted to tricycles 
79.04 
Restricted to tricycles combined with a trailer 
having a maximum authorised mass not


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string_value:
79.04 
Restricted to tricycles combined with a trailer 
having a maximum authorised mass not 
exceeding 750 kg 
79.05 
Category A1 motorcycle with a power / weight 
ratio above 0.1 kW/kg 
79.06 
Category BE vehicle where the maximum 
authorized mass of the trailer exceeds 3500 kg 
6  [193] 
80 
Restricted to category A vehicle motor 
tricycles until reaches age of 24 years 
81 
Restricted to category A vehicle of the two-
wheel motorcycle type until reaches age of 21 
years 
95


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string_value:
wheel motorcycle type until reaches age of 21 
years 
95 
Driver holding a certificate of professional 
competence meeting the obligation of 
professional aptitude provided for by Directive 
(EU) 2022/2561 of 14 December 20221 until 
(date in brackets)  
96 
Category B vehicles combined with a trailer 
with a maximum authorized mass exceeding 
750 kg where the maximum authorized mass 
of such combination exceeds 3500 kg but does 
not exceed 4250 kg 
97


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string_value:
of such combination exceeds 3500 kg but does 
not exceed 4250 kg 
97 
Not authorised to drive a category C1 vehicle 
which falls within the scope of Council 
Regulation (EU) No. 165/2014 of 4 February 
20142  
101 
Renewal subject to submission of a valid 
medical report 
 
1 OJ L330, 23.12.2022 p,46 
2 OJ L60, 28.02.2014 p,1 
[193]  7 
102 
Diplomatic licence 
108 
Must be accompanied by Approved Driving 
Instructor 
109 
Must undergo driving test within 2 months of 
issue 
115 
Organ donor


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string_value:
Instructor 
109 
Must undergo driving test within 2 months of 
issue 
115 
Organ donor 
991 
First learner permit 
992 
Second learner permit 
993 
Third learner permit 
994 
Fourth learner permit 
999 
Must be accompanied by a licence holder in 
the category 
”
, 
and 
(i) 
by the insertion of the following regulation after Regulation 54: 
“Evidence of legal right to reside in the State 
54A. (1) Each of the following shall be evidence that a person


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string_value:
54A. (1) Each of the following shall be evidence that a person 
has a legal right to reside in the State for the purposes of an 
application for an Irish driving licence or a learner permit: 
(a) 
where the applicant is the holder of a current 
public services card (within the meaning given 
to it by section 263(1) (inserted by section 9(1) 
of the Act of 2010) of the Social Welfare 
Consolidation Act 2005 (No. 26 of 2005) and 
the applicant’s nationality, as contained in the


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string_value:
Consolidation Act 2005 (No. 26 of 2005) and 
the applicant’s nationality, as contained in the 
card, is of a member state of the European 
8  [193] 
Union or the European Economic Area or of 
Switzerland or the United Kingdom, such 
public services card; 
(b) 
where the applicant was born before 1 January 
2005, a birth certificate or an adoption 
certificate showing the applicant’s place of 
birth to be in Ireland; 
(c) 
where the applicant was born before 1 January


key: chroma:document
string_value:
birth to be in Ireland; 
(c) 
where the applicant was born before 1 January 
1983, a birth certificate or an adoption 
certificate showing the applicant’s place of 
birth to be in the United Kingdom; 
(d) 
a document in respect of the applicant 
purporting to be a copy of an entry in a foreign 
births entry book or in the foreign births 
register, both of which are kept under section 
27 of the Act of 1956, and which is duly 
authenticated as such; 
(e)


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string_value:
27 of the Act of 1956, and which is duly 
authenticated as such; 
(e) 
a certificate of naturalisation issued under the 
Act of 1956; 
(f) 
an Irish passport or passport card in respect of 
the applicant (current or expired by no more 
than 12 months); 
(g) 
a current passport issued in respect of the 
applicant by a member state of the European 
Union or the European Economic Area or by 
Switzerland or the United Kingdom and which 
is valid for international use; 
(h)


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string_value:
Switzerland or the United Kingdom and which 
is valid for international use; 
(h) 
a current national identity card issued in respect 
of the applicant by a member state of the 
European Union or the European Economic 
Area or by Switzerland; 
(i) 
when presented with a current passport valid for 
international use issued in respect of the 
applicant or with a current public services card 
(within the meaning given to it by section 
263(1) (inserted by section 9(1) of the Act of


key: chroma:document
string_value:
(within the meaning given to it by section 
263(1) (inserted by section 9(1) of the Act of 
2010) of the Social Welfare Consolidation Act 
2005 (No. 26 of 2005)) in respect of the 
applicant – 
(i) 
a registration certificate issued under 
section 9 of the Immigration Act 2004 
(No. 1 of 2004) which has not expired on 
the date of the application; 
(ii) 
a temporary residence certificate given to 
the applicant under section 17 of the Act 
[193]  9 
of 2015 which is valid on the date of the


key: chroma:document
string_value:
the applicant under section 17 of the Act 
[193]  9 
of 2015 which is valid on the date of the 
application; 
(iii) a permission to reside in the State given 
to the applicant under section 60(6) of the 
Act of 2015 which is valid on the date of 
the application.”. 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
GIVEN under my Official Seal, 
13 May, 2025. 
 
DARRAGH O’BRIEN, 
Minister for Transport. 
 
 
 
10  [193] 
EXPLANATORY NOTE 
 
(This note is not part of the Instrument and does not purport to be a legal


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string_value:
EXPLANATORY NOTE 
 
(This note is not part of the Instrument and does not purport to be a legal 
interpretation.) 
 
These Regulations provide for the revocation of driving licences and learner 
permits where they have been obtained fraudulently or where certain residence 
documents expire. 
 
 
[193]  11 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
BAILE ÁTHA CLIATH 
ARNA FHOILSIÚ AG OIFIG AN tSOLÁTHAIR 
Le ceannach díreach ó 
FOILSEACHÁIN RIALTAIS, 
BÓTHAR BHAILE UÍ BHEOLÁIN, 
CILL MHAIGHNEANN,


key: chroma:document
string_value:
Le ceannach díreach ó 
FOILSEACHÁIN RIALTAIS, 
BÓTHAR BHAILE UÍ BHEOLÁIN, 
CILL MHAIGHNEANN, 
BAILE ÁTHA CLIATH 8, 
D08 XAO6  
 
Teil: 046 942 3100 
r-phost: publications@opw.ie 
—————— 
 
 
DUBLIN 
PUBLISHED BY THE STATIONERY OFFICE 
To be purchased from 
GOVERNMENT PUBLICATIONS, 
MOUNTSHANNON ROAD, 
KILMAINHAM, DUBLIN 8, 
D08 XAO6 
 
Tel: 046 942 3100 
E-mail: publications@opw.ie 
—————— 
 
 
€ 3.50   
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
(DTRV-20) 30. 5/25. Propylon.


key: chroma:document
string_value:
STATUTORY INSTRUMENTS. 
 
 
 
 
S.I. No. 70 of 2025 
 
 
 
 
________________ 
 
 
 
 
STUDENT GRANT SCHEME 2025 
 
 
 
2  [70] 
 
S.I. No. 70 of 2025 
 
STUDENT GRANT SCHEME 2025 
ARRANGEMENT OF SCHEME 
Part 1 
Preliminary and general 
1. 
Citation 
5 
2. 
Commencement and application 
5 
3. 
Interpretation 
5 
 
Part 2 
Scheme of grants 
4. 
Persons to whom the Scheme applies 
8 
5. 
Awarding authority 
8 
6. 
Classes of grant 
8 
7. 
Maintenance grant 
8 
8. 
Fee grant 
9 
9.


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5. 
Awarding authority 
8 
6. 
Classes of grant 
8 
7. 
Maintenance grant 
8 
8. 
Fee grant 
9 
9. 
Tuition fee element of fee grant 
10 
10. 
Student contribution element of fee grant 
10 
11. 
Field trip element of fee grant 
10 
12. 
Postgraduate fee contribution 
10 
13. 
Classes of applicant 
11 
14. 
Eligibility exclusions 
12 
15. 
Period of eligibility and progression 
13 
16. 
Post leaving certificate courses — progression 
17 
17. 
Undergraduate courses — progression 
17 
18.


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17 
17. 
Undergraduate courses — progression 
17 
18. 
Postgraduate courses — progression 
19 
 
Part 3 
Reckonable income 
19. 
Reckonable income limits and eligible payments 
20 
20. 
Reference period 
22 
21. 
Persons whose income is considered 
22 
22. 
Determination of reckonable income — general 
22 
23. 
Determination of reckonable income — self-employment  
and farming, including rental and other income from land and  
[70]  3 
 
property 
25 
24.


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and farming, including rental and other income from land and  
[70]  3 
 
property 
25 
24. 
Determination of reckonable income — secondary income 
26 
25. 
Treatment of losses 
27 
 
Part 4 
Award of grants 
26. 
Offer and award of grant and transfer of status 
27 
27. 
Rates and value — maintenance grants 
28 
28. 
Rates and value — fee grant, tuition fee element 
29 
29. 
Rates and value — fee grant, student contribution element 
30 
30. 
Rates and value — fee grant, field trip element 
30


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string_value:
30 
30. 
Rates and value — fee grant, field trip element 
30 
31. 
Rates and value — postgraduate fee contribution 
30 
32. 
Review of eligibility during academic year 
30 
 
Part 5 
Application, provision of information and payment 
33. 
Appropriate awarding authority 
31 
34. 
Application time limits 
32 
35. 
Applications generally 
32 
36. 
Submission of information 
32 
37. 
Payment of maintenance grants 
33 
38. 
Payment of fee grants 
34 
39. 
Payment of postgraduate fee contribution


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string_value:
33 
38. 
Payment of fee grants 
34 
39. 
Payment of postgraduate fee contribution 
35 
40. 
Overpayments 
35 
 
Part 6 
Appeals 
41. 
Appeals to appeals officers 
35 
42. 
Appeals to Appeals Board 
35 
 
 
4  [70] 
 
 
SCHEDULE 1 
Reckonable income limits for maintenance and fee grants for the 2025/26 
academic year. 
 
SCHEDULE 2 
Eligible payments for the special rate of maintenance grant for the 2025/26 
academic year. 
 
SCHEDULE 3


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string_value:
academic year. 
 
SCHEDULE 3 
Annual rates of maintenance grant for the 2025/26 academic year. 
 
SCHEDULE 4 
Maximum overall limits for a fee grant for the 2025/26 academic year. 
 
 
[70]  5 
 
S.I. No. 70 of 2025 
 
STUDENT GRANT SCHEME 2025 
 
I, JAMES LAWLESS Minister for Further and Higher Education, Research, 
Innovation and Science, in exercise of the powers conferred on me by section 16 
of the Student Support Act 2011 (No. 4 of 2011) (as adapted by the Further and


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string_value:
of the Student Support Act 2011 (No. 4 of 2011) (as adapted by the Further and 
Higher Education, Research, Innovation and Science (Transfer of Departmental 
Administration and Ministerial Functions) Order 2020 (S.I. No. 451 of 2020), 
and the Public Expenditure and Reform (Alteration of Name of Department and 
Title of Minister) Order 2023 (S.I. No. 19 of 2023)), with the consent of the 
Minister for Public Expenditure, National Development Plan Delivery and


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string_value:
Minister for Public Expenditure, National Development Plan Delivery and 
Reform, hereby make the following scheme of grants:-  
 
Part 1 
PRELIMINARY AND GENERAL 
Citation 
1. 
This Scheme may be cited as the Student Grant Scheme 2025. 
 
Commencement and application 
2. (1) This Scheme shall come into operation on 6th March 2025. 
(2) This Scheme applies in relation to the provision of grants to students in 
the 2025/26 academic year, where such year begins on or after 1 September


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string_value:
the 2025/26 academic year, where such year begins on or after 1 September 
2025, irrespective of whether anything done under this Scheme is done before, 
on or after 1 September 2025. 
 
Interpretation 
3. (1) In this Scheme— 
“Accelerated Technician Programme” has the meaning assigned to it in 
Regulation 4(b)(viii) of the Regulations; 
“Act” means the Student Support Act 2011 (No. 4 of 2011); 
“appeals officer” means a person designated under section 20(1) of the Act;


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string_value:
“appeals officer” means a person designated under section 20(1) of the Act; 
“approved full-time course” shall be construed in accordance with section 8(1) 
of the Act and Regulation 4 of the Regulations. Where relevant, it shall also 
include a course approved under any previous Regulations termed “Student 
Support Regulations” made by the Minister in respect of a full-time course under 
the Student Support Act 2011;


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string_value:
the Student Support Act 2011; 
“approved full-time higher education course” shall be construed as an approved 
full-time undergraduate or postgraduate course; 
“approved part-time course” shall be construed in accordance with section 8(3) 
of the Act and Regulation 4 of the Student Part-Time Fee Regulations for 
Specified Undergraduate Courses 2025. Where relevant, it shall also include a 
Notice of the making of this Statutory Instrument was published in 
"Iris Oifigiúil" of 11th March, 2025.


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string_value:
"Iris Oifigiúil" of 11th March, 2025. 
6  [70] 
 
course approved under any previous Regulations termed Student Part-Time Fee 
Regulations for Specified Undergraduate Courses made by the Minister under 
the Student Support Act 2011; 
“approved institution” shall be construed in accordance with section 7 of the Act 
and Regulation 3 of the Regulations;   
“awarding authority” means the City of Dublin Education and Training Board in


key: chroma:document
string_value:
“awarding authority” means the City of Dublin Education and Training Board in 
accordance with article 4 of the Student Support Act (Appointment of Awarding 
Authority) Order 2012 — (S.I. No. 161 of 2012) and Part 7 of the Education and 
Training Boards Act 2013; 
“credits” means an acknowledgement of an enrolled learners completion of a 
programme or part of a programme of education and training to a particular 
standard, in this case the European Credit Transfer and Accumulation System


key: chroma:document
string_value:
standard, in this case the European Credit Transfer and Accumulation System 
(ECTS), the credit system for higher education used in the European Higher 
Education Area;  
“dependent child” shall be construed in accordance with section 16(7) of the Act 
and article 19(8); 
“dependent student” means a class of applicant coming within the meaning of 
that term in accordance with article 13; 
“designated awarding body” means an awarding body as defined in the


key: chroma:document
string_value:
“designated awarding body” means an awarding body as defined in the 
Qualifications and Quality Assurance (Education And Training) Act 2012 (as 
amended) and Quality and Qualifications Ireland (QQI); 
“EU rate of fee” means the fee determined and charged by an institution for a 
course to European Union, EEA and Swiss nationals, and related categories of 
student, including a person who is a person of a class that stands prescribed under


key: chroma:document
string_value:
student, including a person who is a person of a class that stands prescribed under 
section 14A(1) of the Act for the purposes of section 14(1)(aa) of the Act; 
“field trip” means a trip which is compulsory and an integral part of a course, 
which is for fact-finding or research purposes, and without which the student 
cannot graduate or progress to the next year of the course; 
“Free Fees Schemes” includes the Free Fees Schemes and the Middle Level


key: chroma:document
string_value:
“Free Fees Schemes” includes the Free Fees Schemes and the Middle Level 
Technician Programme (M.L.T) and the Higher Technical and Business Skills 
Programme (H.T.B.S.) which provide for the Exchequer to meet the tuition fees 
of eligible students attending approved full-time undergraduate courses in 
approved institutions in the State who meet the criteria of those initiatives; 
“independent student” means a class of applicant coming within the meaning of


key: chroma:document
string_value:
“independent student” means a class of applicant coming within the meaning of 
that term in accordance with article 13; 
“Member State” means, where the context so admits, Member State of the 
European Union; 
“Minister” means the Minister for Further and Higher Education, Research, 
Innovation and Science; 
“national framework of qualifications” means the framework of qualifications 
established and maintained pursuant to section 7 of the Qualifications (Education


key: chroma:document
string_value:
established and maintained pursuant to section 7 of the Qualifications (Education 
and Training) Act 1999 (No. 26 of 1999); 
“normal residence” shall be construed in accordance with article 7(2); 
[70]  7 
 
“postgraduate course” means a course leading to a major higher education and 
training award at Level 8 (Higher Diploma), Level 9 (Postgraduate Diploma, 
Master Degree), Level 10 (Doctoral Degree) on the national framework of 
qualifications or equivalent awards;


key: chroma:document
string_value:
qualifications or equivalent awards; 
“post leaving certificate course” has the meaning given to it in Regulation 4(a) 
of the Regulations; 
“Regulations” means the Student Support Regulations 2025 (S.I. No. 71 of 
2025); 
“relevant persons” include— 
(a) 
dependent children; 
(b) 
a dependent student's parent(s), and 
(c) 
an independent student's spouse, civil partner or cohabitant; 
“relevant specified jurisdiction” means the United Kingdom as respects the class


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“relevant specified jurisdiction” means the United Kingdom as respects the class 
of person standing prescribed by virtue of paragraph (3) of Regulation 5 of the 
Regulations; 
“student” shall be construed in accordance with section 14(1) of the Act and 
Regulation 5 of the Regulations; 
“student contribution” means the charge payable by students who are deemed 
eligible for free tuition fees under the Free Fees Schemes. This contribution


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eligible for free tuition fees under the Free Fees Schemes. This contribution 
encompasses the student services charge and a contribution by students towards 
tuition costs; 
“tuition student” has the meaning given to it by section 14(7) of the Act; 
“undergraduate course” means a course leading to a major higher education and 
training award at Level 6 (Higher Certificate), Level 7 (Ordinary Bachelor 
Degree), Level 8 (Honours Bachelor Degree) on the national framework of


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Degree), Level 8 (Honours Bachelor Degree) on the national framework of 
qualifications, or equivalent awards, other than a course known for the time 
being as a post leaving certificate course; 
(2) A word or expression which is used in this Scheme and which is also 
used in the Act has, unless the context otherwise requires, the same meaning in 
this Scheme as it has in the Act. 
(3) 
(a) 
A reference in this Scheme to an article is to an article of this


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(3) 
(a) 
A reference in this Scheme to an article is to an article of this 
Scheme, unless it is indicated that reference to some other 
instrument is intended; 
(b) 
A reference in this Scheme to a paragraph or subparagraph is to 
the paragraph or subparagraph of the provision in which the 
reference occurs, unless it is indicated that reference to some 
other provision is intended; 
(c) 
A reference in this Scheme to a Schedule is to a Schedule to this


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(c) 
A reference in this Scheme to a Schedule is to a Schedule to this 
Scheme, unless it is indicated that reference to some other 
instrument is intended. 
 
 
8  [70] 
 
Part 2 
SCHEME OF GRANTS 
Persons to whom the Scheme applies 
4. (1) This Scheme applies to students or tuition students who wish to apply 
for a grant in respect of attendance on an approved full-time course, in an        
approved institution, in the academic year 2025/26.


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approved institution, in the academic year 2025/26. 
(2) An applicant who meets the definition of “student” or “tuition student” 
and who is attending an approved full-time course in an approved institution 
shall be eligible to be considered for a grant subject to and in accordance with 
this Scheme. 
(3) An applicant is a student or tuition student in connection with an 
approved full-time course if, in assessing his or her application for a grant, the


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approved full-time course if, in assessing his or her application for a grant, the 
awarding authority determines that the person meets or will meet the definition 
of a “student” or “tuition student” as construed in accordance with section 14 of 
the Act and Regulation 5 of the Regulations. 
(4) To be eligible for a grant in the academic year under this Scheme, a 
person who meets the definition of student or tuition student who is pursuing an


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person who meets the definition of student or tuition student who is pursuing an 
approved full-time course in an approved institution must fulfil the specific 
eligibility conditions of this Scheme contained in articles 14 to 18 and must have 
a reckonable income within the limits and other requirements set out in articles 
19 to 25. 
 
Awarding authority 
5. 
An applicant’s entitlement to a grant shall be assessed by the awarding 
authority pursuant to article 33. 
 
Classes of grant 
6.


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authority pursuant to article 33. 
 
Classes of grant 
6. 
For the purposes of this Scheme there shall be three classes of grant as 
follows— 
(a) 
a maintenance grant; 
(b) 
a fee grant; and 
(c) 
a postgraduate fee contribution. 
 
Maintenance grant 
7. (1) A maintenance grant is a contribution towards the living costs of a 
student and is payable at— 
(a) 
the standard rate, at either full (Band 1) or part (Band 2, Band 3 
or Band 4) rate, depending on the level of reckonable income, or


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or Band 4) rate, depending on the level of reckonable income, or 
(b) 
the special rate, depending on the level of reckonable income and 
other requirements; 
[70]  9 
 
and, in either case, at either adjacent or non-adjacent rates, depending on the 
distance from a student's normal residence to the institution where the approved 
full-time course takes place. 
(2) For the purposes of this article, “normal residence” means a student’s


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(2) For the purposes of this article, “normal residence” means a student’s 
usual place of residence. For a dependent student this will be the permanent or 
home address of the dependent student's parents. In the case of an independent 
student, the normal residence will be the permanent or home address of the 
independent student. 
(3) The awarding authority shall decide the rate applicable to a maintenance 
grant in each particular case, in accordance with article 27.


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grant in each particular case, in accordance with article 27. 
(4) A maintenance grant shall not be payable to a tuition student, as defined 
in section 14 of the Act. 
 
Fee grant 
8. (1) Subject to the terms of this article, an eligible student or an eligible 
tuition student can be considered for a fee grant. 
(2) A fee grant shall be payable in respect of attendance on an approved full-
time course at an approved institution in the State (other than a course known for


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time course at an approved institution in the State (other than a course known for 
the time being as a post leaving certificate course). 
(3) A grant for attendance at an approved postgraduate course in Northern 
Ireland listed in Schedule 3 to the Regulations may include a fee grant where it 
is awarded to a student, but not where it is awarded to a tuition student. 
(4) A fee grant may consist of any of three elements: a tuition fee element, a


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(4) A fee grant may consist of any of three elements: a tuition fee element, a 
student contribution element and a field trip element, payable up to a maximum 
overall limit specified in Schedule 4. 
(5) Subject to the maximum overall limits, the tuition fee element of a fee 
grant is payable at full (100%) or part (50%) rates, and the student contribution 
element of a fee grant is payable at full (100%), part (50%) or part (€500) rates.


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element of a fee grant is payable at full (100%), part (50%) or part (€500) rates. 
(6) The awarding authority shall decide on the rate and value applicable in 
respect of the tuition fee element and the student contribution element and the 
amount, if any, payable in respect of the field trip element in each particular case, 
in accordance with articles 28, 29 and 30. 
(7) A student or tuition student in receipt of, or eligible for, full assistance


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(7) A student or tuition student in receipt of, or eligible for, full assistance 
towards the tuition fee element from any other source, including sponsorship or 
an award, shall not be eligible for a fee grant under the terms of this Scheme. 
(8) A fee grant, or part thereof, shall be subject to a reduction where the 
student or tuition student receives, or is eligible for, assistance towards the 
tuition fee from any other source.


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tuition fee from any other source. 
(9) Where a fee grant is subject to a reduction pursuant to paragraph (8), the 
amount of the reduction shall be equal to the value of the assistance which the 
person has received or to which he or she is eligible. 
 
 
10  [70] 
 
Tuition fee element of fee grant 
9. (1) A student or a tuition student who is eligible under the Free Fees 
Schemes for free tuition in respect of an approved full-time undergraduate course


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Schemes for free tuition in respect of an approved full-time undergraduate course 
is not eligible for the tuition fee element of a fee grant under this Scheme. 
(2) Subject to article 8(2) and (3), a student or a tuition student may be 
assessed for the tuition fee element where they are— 
(a) 
pursuing an approved full-time undergraduate course to which the 
Free Fees Schemes applies but where the student, or tuition   
student, is ineligible for free tuition fees under those schemes, or


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student, is ineligible for free tuition fees under those schemes, or 
(b) 
pursuing an approved full-time undergraduate course which is not 
a course approved for the Free Fees Schemes, or 
(c) 
pursuing an approved postgraduate course. 
 
Student contribution element of fee grant 
10. Where a student or a tuition student is pursuing a course approved for the 
Free Fees Schemes, and where that student has qualified for free tuition fees


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Free Fees Schemes, and where that student has qualified for free tuition fees 
under those schemes, the awarding authority may award an eligible student or 
tuition student a full (100%), part (50%) or part (€500) grant in respect of the 
student contribution charge in accordance with article 29. 
 
Field trip element of fee grant 
11. (1) Subject to article 8(2) and (3), where a student or a tuition student 
qualifies for a full (100%) fee grant, or would have qualified for a full fee grant


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qualifies for a full (100%) fee grant, or would have qualified for a full fee grant 
but for the Free Fees Schemes, and is required to participate in a compulsory 
field trip, the awarding authority shall, as applicable, consider the student or 
tuition student for a grant in respect of eligible field trip expenditure, in 
accordance with article 30. 
(2) The rate of the field trip element, if any, is dependent on whether the


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(2) The rate of the field trip element, if any, is dependent on whether the 
tuition fee cost, regardless of whether it is funded under this Scheme, and the 
student contribution element exceeds the maximum limits payable in respect of 
a fee grant. 
(3) The expenditure which is eligible for consideration in respect of a field 
trip grant is the reasonably incurred, receipted cost of travel and accommodation, 
associated directly with the field trip. 
 
Postgraduate fee contribution


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associated directly with the field trip. 
 
Postgraduate fee contribution 
12. (1) Subject to article 14(9), the awarding authority may award an 
eligible student or a tuition student pursuing an approved postgraduate course, a 
postgraduate fee contribution at the rate specified in Schedule 4. 
(2) An award for attendance at an approved postgraduate course in Northern 
Ireland listed in Schedule 3 of the Regulations may include a postgraduate fee


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Ireland listed in Schedule 3 of the Regulations may include a postgraduate fee 
contribution where it is awarded to a student, but not where it is awarded to a 
tuition student.  
[70]  11 
 
(3) A student or tuition student in receipt of, or eligible for, full assistance 
towards the tuition fee element from any other source, including sponsorship or 
an award, shall not be eligible for the postgraduate fee contribution under the 
terms of this Scheme.


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terms of this Scheme. 
(4) A postgraduate fee contribution award shall be subject to a reduction 
where the student or tuition student receives, or is eligible for, assistance towards 
the tuition fee from any other source. 
(5) Where the postgraduate fee contribution is subject to a reduction 
pursuant to paragraph (4), the amount of the reduction shall be equal to the value 
of the assistance which the person has received or to which he or she is eligible. 
 
Classes of applicant


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Classes of applicant 
13. (1) For the purposes of this Scheme there shall be two classes of 
applicant as follows— 
(a) 
independent student; and 
(b) 
dependent student. 
(2) An applicant's class is defined at his or her first point of entry or his or 
her point of re-entry to — 
(a) 
an approved post leaving certificate course; and/or 
(b) 
an approved full-time higher education course or an approved 
part-time course 
and will continue to apply for the duration of his or her studies.


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part-time course 
and will continue to apply for the duration of his or her studies. 
(2a) Where an applicant enters a course listed in Part C of Schedule 2 of the 
Regulations, their class is defined at the first point of entry to this course or at 
his or her point of re-entry to this course and will continue to apply for the 
duration of his or her studies. An applicant’s class may not be redefined at his or 
her point of entry or re-entry to a course listed in Part D of Schedule 2 of the


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her point of entry or re-entry to a course listed in Part D of Schedule 2 of the 
Regulations.  
(3) In this Scheme an “independent student” means a mature student who 
did not ordinarily reside with his or her parents, or either of them, from October 
of the year before his or her first point of entry or his or her point of re-entry 
to— 
(a) 
an approved post leaving certificate course; and/or 
(b) 
an approved full-time higher education course or an approved 
part-time course


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(b) 
an approved full-time higher education course or an approved 
part-time course  
and where it is established to the satisfaction of the awarding authority that they 
are eligible on that basis. 
(4) “Mature student” means a student or tuition student who is at least 23 
years old on 1 January in the year of entry for the first time or in the year of re-
entry to — 
(a) 
an approved post leaving certificate course; and/or 
12  [70] 
 
(b)


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entry to — 
(a) 
an approved post leaving certificate course; and/or 
12  [70] 
 
(b) 
an approved full-time higher education course or an approved 
part-time course. 
(5) “Re-entry”, for the purposes of this Scheme, means a mature student 
entering an approved full-time course or an approved part-time course following 
a break in studies of at least three years, having previously attended an approved 
full-time course or an approved part-time course.


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full-time course or an approved part-time course. 
(6) A mature student pursuing an approved full-time course shall be known 
as a “Second Chance Student” where the student — 
(a) 
is returning following a full 3 year break in studies; and 
(b) 
previously attended but did not complete a course; and 
(c) 
is returning in order to pursue an approved full-time course in the 
relevant academic year. 
(7) Where a second chance student has attended a course below


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relevant academic year. 
(7) Where a second chance student has attended a course below 
undergraduate level during the 3 year break in studies, with the exception of the 
approved courses prescribed in Part C of Schedule 2 of the Regulations, he or 
she is regarded as satisfying the conditions of paragraph 6(a), subject to the rules 
of progression as provided for in this Scheme and Section 2 of the Act. 
(8) “Dependent student” means every student or tuition student other than


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(8) “Dependent student” means every student or tuition student other than 
an independent student, as provided for in this Scheme, who is eligible to be 
considered under this Scheme. 
 
Eligibility exclusions 
14. (1) A student or a tuition student is not eligible for a grant if he or she 
already holds a grant from the awarding authority under this or any other scheme. 
(2) A student or tuition student is not eligible for a grant under this Scheme


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(2) A student or tuition student is not eligible for a grant under this Scheme 
if he or she has been awarded or holds any grant, scholarship, prize, allowance, 
bursary or award of similar description made from public funds in the State, or 
equivalent from a Member State, a contracting state to the EEA Agreement, 
relevant specified jurisdiction or the Swiss Confederation, in respect of the 
approved full-time course being attended.


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approved full-time course being attended. 
(3) The awards from public funds referred to in paragraph (2) do not include 
the following— 
(a) 
awards such as scholarships, prizes or bursaries, made by the 
institution being attended; 
(b) 
postgraduate research awards where the stipend portion of the 
award does not exceed a specified amount, which for the relevant 
academic year, is specified to be €25,000; 
(c) 
awards to applicants under the Student Assistance Fund or the


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(c) 
awards to applicants under the Student Assistance Fund or the 
Fund for Students with Disabilities; 
(d) 
Department of Further and Higher Education, Research, 
Innovation and Science Bursary Schemes; 
(e) 
TUSLA - NTRIS Employment Support Scheme; 
[70]  13 
 
(f) 
TUSLA - Educational Support for Children in Care and Aftercare 
Bursary; 
(g) 
Gaeltacht Learning Period Grant; 
(h) 
Kickstart Scholarship Fund; 
(i) 
Adoption Maintenance Allowance; 
(j) 
DABS/P-TECH NEIC bursary; 
(k)


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(i) 
Adoption Maintenance Allowance; 
(j) 
DABS/P-TECH NEIC bursary; 
(k) 
Temporary Tuition Fee Support Scheme; 
(l) 
Concurrent Initial Teacher Education Bursary Scheme. 
(4) A student is not eligible for a maintenance grant if he or she is in receipt 
of the Back to Education Allowance (BTEA), Vocational Training Opportunities 
Scheme (VTOS) allowance or the Department of Further and Higher Education, 
Research, Innovation and Science Beneficiaries of Temporary Protection 
(BOTP) Stipend.


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Research, Innovation and Science Beneficiaries of Temporary Protection 
(BOTP) Stipend. 
(5) Notwithstanding paragraph (4), a student or tuition student in receipt of 
the BTEA or VTOS allowance is eligible to apply for the fee grant elements and 
the postgraduate fee contribution, where he or she is pursuing an approved full-
time course in respect of which fee grants are payable. 
(6) A student or tuition student is not eligible for a fee grant if he or she is


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(6) A student or tuition student is not eligible for a fee grant if he or she is 
pursuing a postgraduate course. 
(7) Notwithstanding paragraph (6), a student or tuition student is eligible for 
a fee grant if he or she is pursuing an approved postgraduate course and the 
applicant's reckonable income meets the qualifying conditions for the special 
rate as specified in Schedule 1 and Schedule 2.  
(8) Notwithstanding paragraph (7), a student or tuition student who does not


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(8) Notwithstanding paragraph (7), a student or tuition student who does not 
satisfy the eligible payment qualifying condition for the special rate is eligible 
for a fee grant where: 
(i) 
the student was awarded a fee grant for the previous year of 
his or her current approved postgraduate course and; 
(ii) 
the student held the eligible payment for the special rate on 
the specified date which led to his or her entitlement to a 
fee grant and;


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the specified date which led to his or her entitlement to a 
fee grant and; 
(iii) the student, by virtue of his or her attendance on an 
approved postgraduate course, is no longer eligible to be in 
receipt of an eligible payment and; 
(iv) the student is renewing his or her grant for the second or 
subsequent year of his or her approved postgraduate course 
not having had a break in studies and; 
(v) 
the reckonable income is within the limit for the special rate


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(v) 
the reckonable income is within the limit for the special rate 
as specified in Schedule 1, and shall be deemed to meet the 
qualifying conditions for the special rate as specified in 
Schedule 1 and 2. 
(9) Notwithstanding paragraphs (6) and (7), a student or tuition student may 
be eligible for a postgraduate fee contribution where the applicant's reckonable 
14  [70] 
 
income is below the reckonable income limit specified at Schedule 1 for the 
postgraduate fee contribution.


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postgraduate fee contribution. 
 
Period of eligibility and progression 
15. (1) A grant awarded under this Scheme shall be awarded only in respect 
of attendance at an approved full-time course in an approved institution, and for 
the normal duration of such an approved full-time course. A student or tuition 
student may not, at any one time, qualify for a grant for more than one approved 
full-time course or approved part-time course.


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full-time course or approved part-time course. 
(2) Where a student is required as part of an approved full-time higher 
education course to attend a higher education institution outside the State for a 
period of up to one year, a maintenance grant may continue to be paid where the 
period abroad does not extend the normal duration of the approved course. 
(3) Where a student is required to participate in an off-campus placement as


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(3) Where a student is required to participate in an off-campus placement as 
a compulsory part of an approved full-time higher education course, a 
maintenance grant may continue to be paid where the period of off-campus 
placement does not extend the normal duration of the approved course. 
(4) Notwithstanding paragraph (3), a student participating in an Accelerated 
Technician Programme is not eligible to have his or her maintenance grant 
continued during the period of paid placement.


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continued during the period of paid placement. 
(5) A grant shall be paid to a student or tuition student, where he or she is in 
“progression”, within the meaning given to that term by section 2 of the Act, 
irrespective of whether he or she was paid a grant for previous attendance on a 
course and subject to the terms and conditions of this Scheme. 
(6) Subject to paragraph (8), a grant may not be paid in respect of a repeat 
period of study on the same course.


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period of study on the same course. 
(7) Subject to this paragraph, paragraphs (5) and (8), and the specific 
progression conditions in articles 16 to 18, a grant may not be paid in respect of 
a repeat period of study on a different course. Notwithstanding this condition, an 
applicant who, having previously pursued any course, but not completed it, or 
having completed a course prescribed in Part C of Schedule 2 of the Regulations


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having completed a course prescribed in Part C of Schedule 2 of the Regulations 
which did not lead to an award at level 5 or above and without completing a 
course prescribed in Part D of Schedule 2 of the Regulations, wishes to pursue 
an approved full-time course, shall be considered for funding in line with the 
following provisions— 
(a) 
Having previously attended, but not completed, any post leaving 
certificate course or equivalent, or having completed a course


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certificate course or equivalent, or having completed a course 
prescribed in Part C of Schedule 2 of the Regulations which did 
not lead to an award at level 5 or above and without completing a 
course prescribed in Part D of Schedule 2 of the Regulations, an 
applicant shall— 
(i) 
be required to complete an equivalent period of study on an 
approved post leaving certificate course, with the exception 
of an applicant commencing an approved course listed in 
[70]  15


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of an applicant commencing an approved course listed in 
[70]  15 
 
Part C of Schedule 2 of the Regulations for the first time, 
before being eligible to be considered for a grant, or 
(ii) 
be eligible to be considered for a grant to pursue an 
approved full-time higher education course. 
(b) 
Having 
previously 
attended, 
but 
not 
completed, 
any 
undergraduate course at Level 6 or 7 of the framework of 
qualifications, or equivalent, an applicant shall— 
(i)


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string_value:
qualifications, or equivalent, an applicant shall— 
(i) 
be required to complete an equivalent period of study on an 
approved full-time undergraduate course at Level 6 or 7 of 
the framework of qualifications before being eligible to be 
considered for a grant, or 
(ii) 
be required to complete an equivalent period of study on an 
approved full-time undergraduate course at Level 8 of the 
framework of qualifications before being eligible to be 
considered for a grant, or


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string_value:
framework of qualifications before being eligible to be 
considered for a grant, or 
(iii) be eligible to be considered for a grant to pursue an 
approved post leaving certificate course where no more 
than one year was completed on an undergraduate course at 
Level 6 or 7 of the framework of qualifications, or 
(iv) be required to complete an equivalent period of study on an 
approved post leaving certificate course where more than 
one year was completed on any undergraduate course at


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string_value:
one year was completed on any undergraduate course at 
Level 6 or 7 of the framework of qualifications, or 
equivalent, before being eligible to be considered for a 
grant, or 
(v) 
be eligible to be considered for a grant to pursue an 
approved postgraduate course, or 
(vi) be required to complete an equivalent period of study on 
one of the approved courses listed in Part C of Schedule 2 
of the Regulations and, where the repeat period of study is


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of the Regulations and, where the repeat period of study is 
longer than that course, be required to complete the 
remainder of the repeat period on one of the approved 
courses listed in Part D of Schedule 2 of the Regulations, 
before being eligible to be considered for a grant. 
(c) 
Having 
previously 
attended, 
but 
not 
completed, 
any 
undergraduate course at Level 8 of the framework of 
qualifications, or equivalent, an applicant will— 
(i)


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string_value:
qualifications, or equivalent, an applicant will— 
(i) 
be required to complete an equivalent period of study on an 
approved full-time undergraduate course at Level 8 of the 
framework of qualifications before being eligible to be 
considered for a grant, or 
 
(ii) 
be required to complete an equivalent period of study on an 
approved full-time undergraduate course at Level 6 or 7 of 
the framework of qualifications before being eligible to be 
considered for a grant, or 
16  [70]


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considered for a grant, or 
16  [70] 
 
(iii) be eligible to be considered for a grant to pursue an 
approved post leaving certificate course where no more 
than one year was completed on an undergraduate course at 
Level 8 of the framework of qualifications, or 
(iv) be required to complete an equivalent period of study on an 
approved post leaving certificate course where more than 
one year was completed on any undergraduate course at


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string_value:
one year was completed on any undergraduate course at 
Level 8 of the framework of qualifications, or equivalent, 
before being eligible to be considered for a grant, or 
(v) 
be eligible to be considered for a grant to pursue an 
approved postgraduate course, or 
(vi) be required to complete an equivalent period of study on 
one of the approved courses listed in Part C of Schedule 2 
of the Regulations and, where the repeat period of study is


key: chroma:document
string_value:
of the Regulations and, where the repeat period of study is 
longer than that course, be required to complete the 
remainder of the repeat period on one of the approved 
courses listed in Part D of Schedule 2 of the Regulations, 
before being eligible to be considered for a grant. 
(d) 
Having previously attended, but not completed, any postgraduate 
course or equivalent, an applicant will— 
(i) 
be required to complete an equivalent period of study on an


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string_value:
(i) 
be required to complete an equivalent period of study on an 
approved postgraduate course before being eligible to be 
considered for a grant, or 
(ii) 
be eligible to be considered for a grant to pursue an 
approved full-time undergraduate course where no more 
than one year was completed on any postgraduate course, 
or 
(iii) be required to complete an equivalent period of study on an 
approved full-time undergraduate course at Level 6, 7 or 8


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string_value:
approved full-time undergraduate course at Level 6, 7 or 8 
of the framework of qualifications where more than one 
year was completed on any postgraduate course at Level 8, 
9 or 10 of the framework of qualifications, or equivalent, 
before being eligible to be considered for a grant, or 
(iv) be eligible to be considered for a grant to pursue an 
approved post leaving certificate course where no more 
than one year has been completed on any postgraduate 
course, or 
(v)


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than one year has been completed on any postgraduate 
course, or 
(v) 
be required to complete an equivalent period of study on an 
approved post leaving certificate course where more than 
one year was completed on any postgraduate course before 
being eligible to be considered for a grant, or 
(vi) be required to complete an equivalent period of study on 
one of the approved courses listed in Part C of Schedule 2 
of the Regulations where more than one year was


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string_value:
of the Regulations where more than one year was 
completed on any postgraduate course at Level 8, 9 or 10 of 
the framework of qualifications, or equivalent and, where 
[70]  17 
 
the repeat period of study is longer than that course, be 
required to complete the remainder of the repeat period on 
one of the approved courses listed in Part D of Schedule 2 
of the Regulations, before being eligible to be considered 
for a grant. 
(e)


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of the Regulations, before being eligible to be considered 
for a grant. 
(e) 
An equivalent period of study shall be construed in accordance 
with guidelines drawn up by the Minister.  
(8) The awarding authority shall have discretion to waive the provisions at 
paragraphs (6) and (7) in exceptional circumstances, in line with guidelines 
drawn up by the Minister. 
(9) Notwithstanding paragraphs (6), (7) and (8), a second chance student or


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(9) Notwithstanding paragraphs (6), (7) and (8), a second chance student or 
second chance tuition student, in accordance with article 13(6) and (7), returning 
in order to pursue an approved full-time course, may be considered eligible for 
a grant to pursue an approved full-time course, including where this provides for 
a repeat period of study, subject to the rules of progression, as provided for in 
this Scheme and section 2 of the Act.


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this Scheme and section 2 of the Act. 
(10) The maximum periods in respect of which a grant may be payable are 
outlined below and are subject to the conditions set out in this Scheme for 
progression: 
(a) 
Post leaving certificate courses: 
— Grant aid shall be limited to a maximum of three years in total, 
with the exception of a student who commences one of the 
approved courses prescribed in Part C of Schedule 2 of the 
Regulations, in which case grant aid shall be limited to a


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Regulations, in which case grant aid shall be limited to a 
maximum of five years in total.  
(b) 
Undergraduate courses: 
— Grant aid shall be limited to a maximum of four years in total 
for courses at Level 6 and 7 of the framework of qualifications 
and, within that total, shall be subject to a maximum of— 
(i) 
two years at Level 6; 
(ii) 
three years at Level 7; 
— Grant aid shall be limited to a maximum of four years in total


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(ii) 
three years at Level 7; 
— Grant aid shall be limited to a maximum of four years in total 
for courses at Level 8 of the framework of qualifications, except 
for courses where the normal duration is more than four years. 
— Where a student previously received grant aid for an approved 
part-time course, a proportion of grant aid received shall be 
deducted from the above totals. For the purposes of calculation 
under this article, the number of credits previously funded for an


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under this article, the number of credits previously funded for an 
approved part-time course shall be calculated as a portion of one 
year on an approved full-time course, whereby one year of an 
approved full-time course shall be taken to equate to 60 credits. 
(c) 
Postgraduate courses: 
— Grant aid for postgraduate study shall be limited to a maximum 
of four years in total. 
18  [70] 
 
— Account is taken of all previous attendance and attainment at


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18  [70] 
 
— Account is taken of all previous attendance and attainment at 
post graduate level when considering grant aid entitlement for 
post graduate study, regardless of whether a person previously 
received a grant or not. 
 
Post leaving certificate courses — progression 
16. (1) Subject to the general conditions outlined in this Scheme and the 
maximum periods specified in article 15(10)(a), the specific progression


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maximum periods specified in article 15(10)(a), the specific progression 
conditions that apply to participation on a post leaving certificate course are set 
out in this article. 
(2) A student pursuing an approved post leaving certificate course, with the 
exception of a student commencing an approved course prescribed in Part C of 
Schedule 2 of the Regulations for the first time, is ineligible for a grant if he or 
she already holds a further education qualification at Level 5 or 6 of the


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she already holds a further education qualification at Level 5 or 6 of the 
framework of qualifications, or a third level qualification at or above Level 6 of 
the framework of qualifications, or equivalent qualifications. 
(3) A grant shall not be paid to a student who already holds an undergraduate 
qualification or a postgraduate qualification and is pursuing an approved post 
leaving certificate course, irrespective of whether or not a grant was paid 
previously.


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leaving certificate course, irrespective of whether or not a grant was paid 
previously. 
(4) Notwithstanding paragraph (2), an applicant who already holds a further 
education qualification not higher than Level 5 of the framework of 
qualifications, or equivalent, and is now pursuing an approved course that offers 
progression, shall be eligible for a grant. 
(5) Notwithstanding paragraph (3), a student who already holds an


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(5) Notwithstanding paragraph (3), a student who already holds an 
undergraduate qualification and commences a course listed in Part C of Schedule 
2 of the Regulations which leads to an award that is of a higher level than their 
previous undergraduate qualification shall be eligible for a grant. 
 
Undergraduate courses — progression 
17. (1) Subject to the general conditions outlined in this Scheme, and the 
maximum periods specified in article 15(10)(b), the specific progression


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maximum periods specified in article 15(10)(b), the specific progression 
conditions that apply to participation at undergraduate level are set out in this 
article. 
(2) A grant shall not be paid to an applicant who already holds a postgraduate 
qualification and is pursuing an approved full-time undergraduate course, 
irrespective of whether or not a grant was paid previously. 
(3) The progression conditions in respect of study at Level 6 of the 
framework of qualifications are as follows—


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framework of qualifications are as follows— 
(a) 
a student or tuition student who is entering for the first time a 
course which leads to a higher education and training award, and 
who wishes to pursue an approved full-time course at Level 6 of 
the framework of qualifications shall be eligible for a grant; 
[70]  19 
 
(b) 
a student or tuition student is ineligible if he or she already holds 
a higher education and training award at or above Level 6 of the


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a higher education and training award at or above Level 6 of the 
framework of qualifications, or equivalent. 
(4) The progression conditions in respect of study at Level 7 of the 
framework of qualifications are as follows— 
(a) 
a student or tuition student who is entering for the first time a 
course leading to a higher education and training award, and who 
wishes to pursue an approved full-time course at Level 7 of the 
framework of qualifications, shall be eligible for a grant; 
(b)


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framework of qualifications, shall be eligible for a grant; 
(b) 
a student or tuition student is ineligible if he or she already holds 
a third level qualification at or above Level 7 of the framework of 
qualifications, or equivalent; 
(c) 
a student or tuition student who already holds a higher education 
and training award at Level 6 of the framework of qualifications 
or equivalent and is progressing to an approved full-time course


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or equivalent and is progressing to an approved full-time course 
at Level 7 of the framework of qualifications shall be eligible for 
a grant in respect of a maximum of two years of an approved full-
time course at Level 7 of the framework of qualifications; 
(d) 
a student or tuition student who completed part of a course at 
Level 6 of the framework of qualifications or equivalent and gains 
admission through exemption to the second or subsequent year of


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admission through exemption to the second or subsequent year of 
an approved full-time course at Level 7 of the framework of 
qualifications shall be eligible for a grant. 
(5) The progression conditions in respect of study at Level 8 of the 
framework of qualifications are as follows— 
(a) 
a student or tuition student who is entering for the first time a 
course which leads to a higher education and training award and 
wishes to pursue an approved full-time course at Level 8 of the


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wishes to pursue an approved full-time course at Level 8 of the 
framework of qualifications shall be eligible for a grant; 
(b) 
a student or tuition student is ineligible if he or she already holds 
an undergraduate higher education and training award at or above 
Level 8 of the framework of qualifications, or equivalent; 
(c) 
a student or tuition student who already holds a higher education 
and training award at Level 6 of the framework of qualifications


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and training award at Level 6 of the framework of qualifications 
or equivalent and is progressing to an approved full-time course 
at Level 8 of the framework of qualifications shall be eligible for 
a grant; 
(d) 
a student or tuition student who already holds a higher education 
and training award at Level 7 of the framework of qualifications 
or equivalent and is progressing to an approved full-time course 
at Level 8 of the framework of qualifications shall be eligible for 
a grant; 
(e)


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at Level 8 of the framework of qualifications shall be eligible for 
a grant; 
(e) 
a student or tuition student who completed part of a course at 
Level 6 or 7 of the framework of qualifications or equivalent and 
gains admission through exemption to the second or subsequent 
20  [70] 
 
year of an approved full-time course at Level 8 of the framework 
of qualifications shall be eligible for a grant. 
 
Postgraduate courses — progression


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of qualifications shall be eligible for a grant. 
 
Postgraduate courses — progression 
18. (1) Subject to the general conditions outlined in this Scheme, and the 
maximum periods specified in article 15(10)(c) the specific progression 
conditions that apply to participation at postgraduate level are set out in this 
article. 
(2) The progression conditions in respect of postgraduate study at Level 8 of 
the framework of qualifications are as follows— 
(a)


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the framework of qualifications are as follows— 
(a) 
a student or tuition student who is entering for the first time a 
course at postgraduate level leading to a higher education and 
training award and wishes to pursue an approved postgraduate 
course at Level 8 of the framework of qualifications shall be 
eligible for a grant; 
(b) 
a student or tuition student is ineligible for a grant if he or she 
already holds a postgraduate higher education and training award


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already holds a postgraduate higher education and training award 
at or above, or equivalent to, Level 8 of the framework of 
qualifications; 
(c) 
for the purposes of this Scheme, postgraduate qualifications at 
Level 8 of the framework of qualifications or equivalent are 
deemed to be progression from undergraduate qualifications at 
Level 8 of the framework of qualifications or equivalent. 
(3) The progression conditions in respect of postgraduate study at Level 9 of


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(3) The progression conditions in respect of postgraduate study at Level 9 of 
the framework of qualifications are as follows— 
(a) 
a student or tuition student who is entering for the first time a 
course at postgraduate level leading to a higher education and 
training award and wishes to pursue an approved postgraduate 
course at Level 9 of the framework of qualifications shall be 
eligible for a grant; 
(b) 
a student or tuition student who holds a postgraduate qualification


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eligible for a grant; 
(b) 
a student or tuition student who holds a postgraduate qualification 
at Level 8 of the framework of qualifications or equivalent, and 
no higher, may progress to one of the following— 
(i) 
a postgraduate diploma at Level 9 of the framework of 
qualifications, 
(ii) 
a master's degree at Level 9 of the framework of 
qualifications, 
(iii) the Barrister-at-Law Degree at the Honorable Society of 
King’s Inns, or


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qualifications, 
(iii) the Barrister-at-Law Degree at the Honorable Society of 
King’s Inns, or 
(iv) the Professional Practice Course in the Law Society of 
Ireland; 
(c) 
a student or tuition student is ineligible for a grant if he or she 
already holds a postgraduate higher education and training award 
at or above, or equivalent to, Level 9 of the framework of 
[70]  21 
 
qualifications, unless he or she meets the conditions at 
subparagraph (d); 
(d)


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[70]  21 
 
qualifications, unless he or she meets the conditions at 
subparagraph (d); 
(d) 
a student or tuition student who already holds a postgraduate 
diploma at Level 9 of the framework of qualifications or 
equivalent and is pursuing one of the following, not having 
previously pursued a course at Level 10 of the framework of 
qualifications or equivalent, shall be eligible for a grant— 
(i) 
a masters degree at Level 9 of the framework of 
qualifications, 
(ii)


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(i) 
a masters degree at Level 9 of the framework of 
qualifications, 
(ii) 
the Barrister-at-Law Degree at the Honorable Society of 
King's Inns, or 
(iii) the Professional Practice Course in the Law Society of 
Ireland; 
(e) 
a student or tuition student is ineligible for funding for the 
Barrister-at-Law Degree at the Honorable Society of King's Inns 
or the Professional Practice Course in the Law Society of  Ireland 
if  he or she holds a masters degree at Level 9 of the framework


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if  he or she holds a masters degree at Level 9 of the framework 
of qualifications or equivalent, unless that masters degree is in 
law. 
(4) The progression conditions in respect of postgraduate study at Level 10 
of the framework of qualifications are as follows— 
(a) 
a student or tuition student who is entering for the first time a 
course which leads to a higher education and training award and 
wishes to pursue an approved postgraduate course at Level 10 of


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wishes to pursue an approved postgraduate course at Level 10 of 
the framework of qualifications or equivalent shall be eligible for 
a grant; 
(b) 
a student or tuition student is ineligible for a grant if he or she 
already holds a postgraduate higher education and training award 
at Level 10 of the framework of qualifications, or equivalent; 
(c) 
a student or tuition student may be eligible for a grant where he 
or she is progressing to a doctoral degree at Level 10 of the


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or she is progressing to a doctoral degree at Level 10 of the 
framework of qualifications from a postgraduate qualification at 
a level lower than Level 10 of the framework of qualifications or    
equivalent. 
(5) Subject to progression, a student or tuition student who completed a one-
year postgraduate course which has not led to the conferral of a qualification and 
gains admittance to the second year or subsequent year of an approved 
postgraduate course shall be eligible for a grant.


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postgraduate course shall be eligible for a grant. 
 
Part 3 
RECKONABLE INCOME 
Reckonable income limits and eligible payments 
19. (1) To be eligible for an award of a grant or any part thereof in respect 
of any academic year of an approved full-time course, an applicant's reckonable 
22  [70] 
 
income in the specified reference period shall not exceed the income limits 
specified on an annual basis by the Minister for each relevant academic year.


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specified on an annual basis by the Minister for each relevant academic year. 
(2) There shall be income limits in respect of— 
Maintenance grants: 
(a) 
the special rate of maintenance grant; 
(b) 
full (Band 1) and part (Band 2, Band 3, Band 4) standard rates of 
maintenance grant. 
Fee grants: 
(c) 
full (100%) and part (50%) grant in respect of the tuition fee 
element of a fee grant; 
(d) 
full (100%), part (50%) and part (€500) grant in respect of student


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element of a fee grant; 
(d) 
full (100%), part (50%) and part (€500) grant in respect of student 
contribution element of a fee grant. 
Postgraduate fee contribution: 
(e) 
a postgraduate fee contribution. 
(3) The income limit for the field trip element of a fee grant shall be the limit 
for a full grant in respect of the tuition fee element of a fee grant. 
(4) Different income limits in respect of paragraph (2)(a), (b), (c), (d) and (e)


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(4) Different income limits in respect of paragraph (2)(a), (b), (c), (d) and (e) 
will apply in cases where the number of dependent children is— 
(a) 
less than 4, 
(b) 
4-7, or 
(c) 
8 or more. 
(5) The reckonable income limits in respect of paragraph 2(a), (b), (c), (d) 
and (e) may be increased by an additional increment where the applicant, plus 
one or  more relevant persons, are attending an approved full-time course for the


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one or  more relevant persons, are attending an approved full-time course for the 
purposes of this Scheme, an approved part-time course or a full-time course of 
at least one year's duration in further or higher education and training in the State, 
any other Member State or a relevant specified jurisdiction leading to a major 
award at Levels 5 to 10 of the framework of qualifications or to an equivalent 
qualification made by a designated awarding body in the State, another Member


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qualification made by a designated awarding body in the State, another Member 
State or a relevant specified jurisdiction. 
(6) The income limits for the specified reference period for the academic 
year are set out in Schedule 1. 
(7) It is a condition of receiving a special rate of maintenance grant that 
either: 
(a) 
an applicant's reckonable income must include, on the specified 
date, one of the eligible payments as provided for in Schedule 2, 
(i)


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date, one of the eligible payments as provided for in Schedule 2, 
(i) 
where a person, whose income is considered for the 
purposes of determining an applicant’s reckonable income 
under this Scheme, joins in a claim for Working Family 
Payment/Family Income Supplement, any payment made 
pursuant to that claim is included in the applicant’s 
reckonable income, or 
[70]  23 
 
(b) 
where the applicant is a dependent student, on the specified date 
a payment specified in Schedule 2, 
(i)


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a payment specified in Schedule 2, 
(i) 
is made to the spouse, civil partner or cohabitant (not being 
a parent of the applicant) of a parent of the applicant; and 
(ii) 
includes an Increase for a Qualified Adult in respect of that 
parent or an Increase for a Qualified Child in respect of the 
applicant, or  
(c) 
where the applicant is a dependent student, on the specified date, 
a Guardian's Payment, as provided for in Schedule 2, is made to


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a Guardian's Payment, as provided for in Schedule 2, is made to 
a person (not being the legal guardian of the applicant) in respect 
of the applicant. 
(8) The following date is prescribed as the relevant date for this Scheme as 
regards the definition of “dependent child” in section 16(7) of the Act: 1 October 
of the year prior to the year in which a student or tuition student, in relation to 
whose application for a grant a dependent child is relevant, commences a year


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whose application for a grant a dependent child is relevant, commences a year 
of study in any year on an approved full-time course. 
 
Reference period 
20. (1) The reference period within which reckonable income is determined 
for an academic year shall be 1 January to 31 December of the relevant calendar 
year specified in Schedule 1. 
(2) If the business year differs from the reference period, the income shown 
in the business accounts for a year which ends between 1 January and 31


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in the business accounts for a year which ends between 1 January and 31 
December of the relevant year will be considered. 
 
Persons whose income is considered 
21. (1) Where the applicant is a dependent student, the income of the 
applicant and his or her parents, as appropriate, shall be taken into account in 
calculating whether the limit(s) specified is exceeded. 
(2) Where the dependent student's parents are divorced or legally separated,


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(2) Where the dependent student's parents are divorced or legally separated, 
or it is established to the satisfaction of the awarding authority that they are 
separated, the reckonable income shall be that of the applicant and of the parent 
or parents with whom the applicant resides. 
(3) Where it is established to the satisfaction of the awarding authority that 
the dependent student— 
(a) 
has no living parent, or 
(b) 
is irreconcilably estranged from both of his or her parents and


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has no living parent, or 
(b) 
is irreconcilably estranged from both of his or her parents and 
neither of his or her parents furnishes financial support to him or 
her (to include foster children and unaccompanied minor 
refugees), a dependent student may be exempted from having 
parents' income taken into account. 
(4) Where the awarding authority is not satisfied that an applicant meets any 
of the conditions for being exempt from having his or her parents' income taken 
24  [70]


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of the conditions for being exempt from having his or her parents' income taken 
24  [70] 
 
into account it will assess that applicant's application for a grant taking into 
account parental income. 
(5) Where the applicant is an independent student, the income of the 
applicant and his or her spouse, civil partner or cohabitant, as appropriate, shall 
be taken into account in calculating whether the limit specified is exceeded. 
 
Determination of reckonable income — general


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Determination of reckonable income — general 
22. (1) Reckonable income shall be determined by the awarding authority 
on the basis of information supplied in the application form and other relevant 
information and documentary evidence supplied, in accordance with article 36. 
Where there is income in a currency other than euro, the euro equivalent of the 
gross amounts must be provided using the Central Bank of Ireland Annual 
Average exchange rates for the relevant year.


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Average exchange rates for the relevant year. 
(2) If the applicant is unsure whether an income, gain or benefit should be 
included in the calculation of reckonable income, the details including the 
amounts should be provided when completing the application form. 
(3) In calculating reckonable income, the awarding authority shall consider 
income from all sources whether it arises in the State or not, including income 
under the following headings— 
(a)


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under the following headings— 
(a) 
Income from employment (including benefit-in-kind and 
directorships), 
(b) 
Social welfare payments, 
(c) 
Payments from other government departments or state agencies, 
(d) 
Self-employment or farming, 
(e) 
Rental and other income from land and property, 
(f) 
Income from pensions other than the social welfare state pension, 
(g) 
Income from savings, deposit accounts and investments, 
(h) 
Income from maintenance arrangements, 
(i)


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(h) 
Income from maintenance arrangements, 
(i) 
Lump sum payments from retirement and redundancy, 
(j) 
Income from the disposal of assets or rights, 
(k) 
Gifts and inheritances, 
(l) 
Income from other sources not mentioned above. 
(4) The following payments, known for the purposes of this Scheme as 
“income disregards”, are not included in calculating reckonable income— 
• 
Accommodation Recognition Payment, 
• 
 Adelaide Health Foundation Bursary – mature, 
•


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• 
Accommodation Recognition Payment, 
• 
 Adelaide Health Foundation Bursary – mature, 
• 
Adoption Maintenance Allowance, 
• 
Aftercare Allowance, 
• 
All Ireland Scholarship Scheme, 
[70]  25 
 
• 
Back to Work Family Dividend, 
• 
Blind Pension (where paid to the applicant), 
• 
Caranua services support, 
• 
Carer's Allowance, 
• 
Carer’s Support Grant (where paid to recipients of the Carer’s 
Allowance and Domiciliary Care Allowance), 
• 
Cessation Turf Cutting Compensation Scheme, 
•


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Allowance and Domiciliary Care Allowance), 
• 
Cessation Turf Cutting Compensation Scheme, 
• 
Child Benefit, 
• 
Community Benefit Education Bursary for the New Children’s 
Hospital, 
• 
Compensation for a personal injury, 
• 
Co-operative Housing Ireland Scholarship Program, 
• 
Cost of Education Allowance, 
• 
DABS/P-TECH NEIC Bursary, 
• 
Department of Further and Higher Education, Research, 
Innovation and Science Bursary Schemes, 
•


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Department of Further and Higher Education, Research, 
Innovation and Science Bursary Schemes, 
• 
Department of Social Protection Temporary Provisions Payment 
(commonly referred to as the Christmas Bonus payment), 
• 
Department of Social Protection Cost of Living payments, 
• 
Disability Allowance (where paid to the applicant), 
• 
Domestic Water Services Refund, 
• 
Domiciliary Care Allowance, 
• 
Dormant Account Funding for Traveller Participation in Higher


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• 
Domiciliary Care Allowance, 
• 
Dormant Account Funding for Traveller Participation in Higher 
Education and/or Programme for Access to Higher Education 
(PATH) Strand 5 funding, 
• 
Exceptional Needs Payments, 
• 
Foster Care Allowance, 
• 
Fuel Allowance, 
• 
Gaeltacht Learning Period Grant, 
• 
Guardian's Payment, 
• 
Household Benefits Package, 
• 
Housing Assistance Payment, 
• 
Independent Living Allowance for Young People in Residential 
Care, 
•


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• 
Independent Living Allowance for Young People in Residential 
Care, 
• 
Jobseekers Allowance Transition (where paid to the applicant), 
• 
Kickstart Scholarship Fund, 
• 
Living Alone Allowance, 
26  [70] 
 
• 
Mobility Allowance (where paid to the applicant), 
• 
Mortgage Interest Supplement, 
• 
One Parent Family Payments (Means Tested) (where paid to the  
applicant), 
• 
Pandemic Placement Grant for Student Nurses/Midwives, 
• 
Pandemic Special Recognition Payment, 
•


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Pandemic Placement Grant for Student Nurses/Midwives, 
• 
Pandemic Special Recognition Payment, 
• 
Payments received under the Mother and Baby Institutions 
Payment Scheme, 
• 
Protected Raised Bog Restoration Incentive Scheme, 
• 
Rental Accommodation Scheme, 
• 
Rent Supplement, 
• 
Stardust ex gratia payment, 
• 
Student Assistance Fund, 
• 
Student Grant, 
• 
Subject to Article 8 and Article 14, the first €5,000 of any 
allowable scholarship programme or bursary award paid to a


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allowable scholarship programme or bursary award paid to a 
student or tuition student which is not otherwise disregarded 
within this Scheme. For the purposes of this disregard, 
scholarship programme or bursary award means money 
(excluding stipends) paid to a student or tuition student for the 
purpose of the public good and in particular for the purpose of 
assisting the student or tuition student to pursue an approved 
course at an approved institution, 
•


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course at an approved institution, 
• 
TUSLA - NTRIS Employment Support Scheme, 
• 
TUSLA - Educational Support for Children in Care and Aftercare 
Bursary, 
• 
Tusla Masters of Social Work (MSW) Student Social Work 
Sponsorship Programme, 
• 
UCD Cothrom na Féinne Scholarship, 
• 
Uversity - Higher Education Bursary for Adult Learners, 
• 
Widowed or Surviving Civil Partner Grant, 
• 
Working Family Payment/Family Income Supplement.


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• 
Widowed or Surviving Civil Partner Grant, 
• 
Working Family Payment/Family Income Supplement. 
(5) For the purposes of determining the reckonable income of an applicant, 
the aggregate of any of the following shall be deducted— 
(a) 
in respect of income from employment, employment related 
expenses as approved by the Revenue Commissioners, or 
equivalent; 
(b) 
income from employment which represents holiday earnings 
outside of term time, subject to a maximum limit set out in


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outside of term time, subject to a maximum limit set out in 
Schedule 1; 
[70]  27 
 
(c) 
maintenance payments made under a legally enforceable 
arrangement to a separated spouse; 
(d) 
contributions to pension schemes and pension or retirement 
products, paid in the reference period only, within the limits 
allowed by the Revenue Commissioners based on age and net 
relevant earnings;  
(e) 
overtime payments earned in the reference period that are not 
recurring payments;  
(f)


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(e) 
overtime payments earned in the reference period that are not 
recurring payments;  
(f) 
vouched expenses (including the cost of uniform laundry) 
claimed under the Travel and Accommodation Scheme for 
student nurses and midwives on mandatory, supernumerary 
clinical practice placements throughout their course, as well as 
the meal allowance of €500 payable to supernumerary nursing 
and midwifery students in years 1 to 3 of their course; and 
(g)


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and midwifery students in years 1 to 3 of their course; and 
(g) 
income up to a maximum of €14,000 in respect of Rent a Room 
Relief, earned in the reference period only and declared to the 
Revenue Commissioners. 
(6) “Income from maintenance arrangements”, for the purposes of paragraph 
(3)(h), includes money or money’s worth actually received as maintenance. 
(7) In determining whether an applicant meets the reckonable income limit


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(7) In determining whether an applicant meets the reckonable income limit 
for the special rate of maintenance grant, a deduction may be made in respect of 
an Increase for a Qualified Child (IQC) paid by the Department of Social 
Protection. 
 
Determination of reckonable income — self-employment and farming, including 
rental and other income from land and property 
23. (1) The following adjustments shall be made to the profit or loss shown


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23. (1) The following adjustments shall be made to the profit or loss shown 
by the accounts in the reference period in order to calculate reckonable income 
from self-employment and farming— 
(a) 
add-back depreciation; 
(b) 
add-back interest on borrowings which fund the fixed assets of 
the business or the personal expenditure of the proprietor; 
(c) 
add-back finance lease payments; 
(d) 
add-back remuneration in respect of— 
(i) 
wages or payments made without applying the PAYE and


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add-back remuneration in respect of— 
(i) 
wages or payments made without applying the PAYE and 
PRSI regulations, or equivalent regulations; 
(ii) 
wages or payments to dependent children; and 
(iii) wages or payments to non-dependent children where the 
payment is above the norm for the work undertaken. 
(e) 
add-back for personal expenditure charged against the business 
income. 
28  [70] 
 
(2) The income tax adjustment for farm stock relief is disregarded in


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income. 
28  [70] 
 
(2) The income tax adjustment for farm stock relief is disregarded in 
calculating reckonable income from farming. 
(3) In calculating reckonable income from self-employment and farming— 
(a) 
no allowance is made in respect of tax capital allowance or tax 
write downs; and 
(b) 
no allowance is made for any deduction for capital expenditure, 
regardless of how it is treated for income tax purposes.


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regardless of how it is treated for income tax purposes. 
(4) In calculating reckonable income in respect of rental and other income 
from land and property, the adjustments set out in paragraph (1) are made to the 
profit or loss from land and properties as shown by the statement of rental 
income and no allowance is made in respect of the matters mentioned in 
paragraph (3) (a) and (b). 
 
Determination of reckonable income — secondary income


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paragraph (3) (a) and (b). 
 
Determination of reckonable income — secondary income 
24. (1) Regarding investments, include savings certificates, life assurance 
bonds and other financial instruments where the interest or profit builds up and 
is paid out as a lump sum at the end of the investment period, the interest or 
profit is time apportioned. The proportion to be included is calculated by   
dividing the total interest or profit at the end of the investment period by the


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dividing the total interest or profit at the end of the investment period by the 
number of years over which it was accumulated. 
(2) If any of the persons whose income is under consideration retired or was 
made redundant from employment or self-employment in the reference period 
and received a lump sum, a proportion of the lump sum is taken into account for 
calculating reckonable income. 
In the case of a retirement, the proportion taken into account is the retirement


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In the case of a retirement, the proportion taken into account is the retirement 
lump sum divided by the number of years pensionable service. In the case of 
self-employment, the pensionable service is the number of years for which 
contributions were made to a retirement product. 
In the case of redundancy, the proportion to be taken into account is calculated 
by dividing the lump sum by the number of years of service with the employer.


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by dividing the lump sum by the number of years of service with the employer. 
(3) If any of the persons whose income is under consideration received 
income from the disposal of assets or rights in the reference period, other than in 
the case of the exceptions listed in paragraph (4), only a proportion of the gain 
or loss is taken into account in calculating reckonable income. The amount to be 
included in reckonable income for each disposal is the actual gain or loss divided


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included in reckonable income for each disposal is the actual gain or loss divided 
by the number of years for which the asset or right was held. 
(4) The exceptions referred to in paragraph (3) are— 
(a) 
the disposal of a principal private residence except where the sale 
price reflects development value; 
(b) 
in the case of an independent student— 
(i) 
disposals between an applicant and his or her spouse, civil 
partner or cohabitant; and 
[70]  29 
 
(ii)


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partner or cohabitant; and 
[70]  29 
 
(ii) 
disposals from an applicant or his or her spouse to their 
dependent children; and 
(c) 
in the case of a dependent student— 
(i) 
disposals between parent(s); 
(ii) 
disposals from parent(s) to an applicant; and 
(iii) disposals from parent(s) to their dependent children. 
(5) If any of the persons whose income is under consideration made a gain 
on the realisation of a life assurance policy or units in an investment fund in the


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on the realisation of a life assurance policy or units in an investment fund in the 
reference period, only a proportion of the gain is taken into account in calculating 
reckonable income. 
(6) If any of the persons whose income is under consideration received gifts 
or inheritances in the reference period, these are included in reckonable income, 
unless— 
(a) 
in the case of an independent student, the gifts or inheritances 
were between the applicant and his or her spouse, civil partner or


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were between the applicant and his or her spouse, civil partner or 
cohabitant, or 
(b) 
in the case of a dependent student, the gifts or inheritances were 
between parents or to the applicant from his or her parent(s). 
 
Treatment of losses 
25. (1) Losses arising from a trade, other than a trade operated on a non 
commercial basis, and losses arising from the disposal of an asset can be offset 
against all other sources of income in the reference period. However, losses


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against all other sources of income in the reference period. However, losses 
carried forward from a previous year cannot be offset. 
(2) Rental losses cannot be offset against other income in the reference 
period. 
 
Part 4 
AWARD OF GRANTS 
Offer and award of grant and transfer of status 
26. (1) Where the awarding authority makes a provisional offer of a grant to 
an applicant under this Scheme, the applicant, where requested to do so, shall


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an applicant under this Scheme, the applicant, where requested to do so, shall 
confirm to the awarding authority the title of the course he or she proposes to 
follow, and such other details as requested, within such period after notification 
of the provisional offer of a grant as the awarding authority may stipulate. 
(2) Pursuant to section 18 of the Act, the awarding authority shall determine 
whether an applicant is eligible to receive a grant under this Scheme having 
regard to— 
(a)


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whether an applicant is eligible to receive a grant under this Scheme having 
regard to— 
(a) 
information furnished by the applicant pursuant to that section of 
the Act; 
30  [70] 
 
(b) 
any other information in relation to the application, as 
appropriate; and 
(c) 
the Regulations and such criteria as are specified in this Scheme. 
(3) Where a student is offered a grant or where a student is awarded a grant 
under this Scheme, but does not pursue an approved full-time course in the


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under this Scheme, but does not pursue an approved full-time course in the 
academic year, the offer or award shall be deemed to have lapsed. 
(4) A grant is awarded for the normal duration of the approved full-time 
course but is subject to renewal each academic year. Annual renewal will be 
based on compliance with the reckonable income limit of the relevant academic 
year and the student progressing from year to year within the course, having


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year and the student progressing from year to year within the course, having 
successfully completed the part of the course as required during the previous 
year. The student will also be required to have registered on and continue to 
attend the same course and to meet all other relevant provisions of this Scheme 
and schemes appropriate to each relevant academic year. Renewal is subject to 
the approval of the awarding authority each academic year. A student


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the approval of the awarding authority each academic year. A student 
progressing from an approved course listed in Part C of Schedule 2 of the 
Regulations to an approved course listed in Part D of Schedule 2 of the 
Regulations shall be treated for the purposes of this paragraph in the same 
manner as an applicant whose grant is subject to renewal.  
(5) A student who, during the course of his or her studies, wishes to change


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(5) A student who, during the course of his or her studies, wishes to change 
course or faculty must obtain the prior approval of the awarding authority in 
order to ensure compliance with this Scheme or a future scheme. 
(6) Where an eligible student transfers to another course, the awarding 
authority shall transfer the student’s status as an eligible student to that course 
where— 
(a) 
it receives a request from the eligible student to do so; and 
(b)


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where— 
(a) 
it receives a request from the eligible student to do so; and 
(b) 
it is satisfied that the terms of the relevant scheme continue to be    
met. 
(7) A student who, having commenced an approved full-time course, wishes 
to defer his or her grant during the course of his or her studies must obtain the 
prior approval of the awarding authority. Such student's eligibility will be 
reassessed on recommencement of the course in order to ensure compliance with 
the relevant scheme.


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the relevant scheme. 
 
Rates and value — maintenance grants 
27. (1) The award of a maintenance grant shall be in accordance with the 
terms of this Scheme and the value of such grant shall be determined by the 
awarding authority having regard to the applicant's reckonable income, whether  
the reckonable income includes an eligible payment for the special rate as 
specified in Schedule 2 and the income limits for each of the respective rates in 
Schedule 1.


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specified in Schedule 2 and the income limits for each of the respective rates in 
Schedule 1. 
(2) The value of the special and standard rates of maintenance grant in 
respect of an approved full-time course shall be in accordance with the annual 
rates specified by the Minister. The rates specified for the academic year are set 
out in Schedule 3. 
[70]  31 
 
(3) In accordance with article 7, full and part standard maintenance grants,


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[70]  31 
 
(3) In accordance with article 7, full and part standard maintenance grants, 
and the special rates of maintenance grant, shall be payable at either adjacent or 
non-adjacent rates. The awarding authority shall determine the rate applicable in 
respect of an eligible student as follows— 
(a) 
the adjacent rates of maintenance grant shall be payable in the 
case of students whose normal residence is less than 30km to the 
approved institution which he or she is attending, where the


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approved institution which he or she is attending, where the 
distance is measured in line with guidelines agreed by the 
Minister; 
(b) 
the non-adjacent rate of maintenance grant shall be payable in all   
other cases. 
(4) Where a student in receipt of a maintenance grant as part of his or her 
approved full-time course is required, to participate in— 
(a) 
compulsory off-campus placement, where the period concerned 
is not less than one academic term or semester, or 
(b)


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is not less than one academic term or semester, or 
(b) 
compulsory study abroad for a period up to one year as an integral 
part of his or her course,  
he/she may have his or her grant entitlement paid in the normal manner in 
accordance with article 15(2) and (3). The rate of grant payable in respect of 
subparagraph (a) or (b) will be determined by the awarding authority having 
regard to paragraph (3). 
(5) If an approved full-time course is run over a shorter academic year or an


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(5) If an approved full-time course is run over a shorter academic year or an 
academic year is different from the standard academic year, a portion of the rate 
of grant will be awarded in line with guidelines issued by the Minister in respect 
of such courses, having regard to the number of weeks over which the course is 
run. 
 
Rates and value — fee grant, tuition fee element 
28. (1) The award of the tuition fee element of a fee grant shall be in


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28. (1) The award of the tuition fee element of a fee grant shall be in 
accordance with the term of this Scheme and the rate and value of such grant 
shall be determined by the awarding authority having regard to the applicant's 
reckonable income and income limits, the EU rate of fee applicable to an 
approved full-time course and the maximum limits applicable for each respective 
rate in Schedule 4. 
(2) The value of the tuition fee element shall be determined in accordance


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rate in Schedule 4. 
(2) The value of the tuition fee element shall be determined in accordance 
with article 9 and shall conform to the income limits set out in Schedule 1. 
(3) A full tuition fee element is payable for the EU rate of fee in respect of 
an approved full-time undergraduate course provided in the State to which the 
Free Fees Schemes applies. 
(4) A full tuition fee element in respect of the EU rate of fee up to but not


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(4) A full tuition fee element in respect of the EU rate of fee up to but not 
exceeding the maximum fee limit prescribed in Schedule 4, is payable in respect 
of an approved full-time undergraduate course provided in the State, but to which 
the Free Fees Schemes does not apply. 
32  [70] 
 
(5) A full tuition fee element in respect of the EU rate of fee up to but not 
exceeding the maximum fee limit prescribed in Schedule 4, is payable in respect


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exceeding the maximum fee limit prescribed in Schedule 4, is payable in respect 
of an approved postgraduate course provided in the State or Northern Ireland. 
(6) A part tuition fee element, not exceeding 50% of the EU rate of fee, is 
payable in respect of an approved full-time undergraduate course provided in the 
State and covered under the Free Fees Schemes. 
(7) A part tuition fee element in respect of 50% of the EU rate of fee, but not


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(7) A part tuition fee element in respect of 50% of the EU rate of fee, but not 
exceeding 50% of the maximum fee limit prescribed in Schedule 4, is payable 
in respect of an approved full-time undergraduate course provided in the State 
but to which the Free Fees Schemes does not apply. 
(8) The award of the postgraduate fee contribution shall be determined in 
accordance with the terms of the scheme and the reckonable income shall


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accordance with the terms of the scheme and the reckonable income shall 
conform to the income limits for the postgraduate fee contribution set out in 
Schedule 1 and is payable at the rate prescribed in Schedule 4. 
 
Rates and value — fee grant, student contribution element 
29. (1) The award of the student contribution element of a fee grant, in 
accordance with article 10, and the rate of such grant shall be determined by the


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accordance with article 10, and the rate of such grant shall be determined by the 
awarding authority having regard to the reckonable income which shall conform 
to the income limits set out in Schedule 1. 
(2) A full student contribution element (100%) may be paid, up to the rate 
prescribed in Schedule 4, in respect of an applicant who qualified under the Free 
Fees Schemes subject to the terms of this Scheme. 
(3) A part student contribution element (50%) may be paid, up to the rate


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(3) A part student contribution element (50%) may be paid, up to the rate 
prescribed in Schedule 4, in respect of an applicant who qualified under the Free 
Fees Schemes subject to the terms of this Scheme. 
(4) A part student contribution element (€500) may be paid, up to the rate 
prescribed in Schedule 4, in respect of an applicant who qualified under the Free 
Fees Schemes subject to the terms of this Scheme. 
 
Rates and value — fee grant, field trip element


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Rates and value — fee grant, field trip element 
30. The field trip element of a fee grant is payable, in accordance with article 
11, subject to the maximum fee limits provided for in Schedule 4. 
 
Rates and value — postgraduate fee contribution 
31. The postgraduate fee contribution is payable, in accordance with article 
12, at the rate specified in Schedule 4. 
 
Review of eligibility during academic year 
32. (1) The eligibility of a person to whom this Scheme applies for the


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32. (1) The eligibility of a person to whom this Scheme applies for the 
award of a grant, or the level of the grant awarded, may be assessed or reassessed 
by the awarding authority in the event of changes of circumstances between 1 
[70]  33 
 
January following the reference period and the end of the academic year relating 
to the following— 
(a) 
the applicant's reckonable income, within the meaning of articles 
19 to 25, which is likely to obtain for the duration of the approved


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19 to 25, which is likely to obtain for the duration of the approved 
full-time course or for the foreseeable future, including eligible 
payments for the special rate of maintenance grant, other than 
where that payment is Jobseeker's Allowance, Jobseeker's Benefit 
or Supplementary Welfare Allowance; 
(b) 
the number of dependent children; 
(c) 
where a relevant person commences an approved full-time course 
for the purpose of this Scheme, an approved part-time course or a


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for the purpose of this Scheme, an approved part-time course or a 
full-time course of at least one year's duration in further or higher 
education and training in the State, any other Member State or a 
relevant specified jurisdiction leading to a major award at Levels 
5 to 10 of the framework of qualifications or to an equivalent 
qualification made by a designated awarding body in the State, 
another Member State or a relevant specified jurisdiction; 
(d) 
normal residence; 
(e)


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another Member State or a relevant specified jurisdiction; 
(d) 
normal residence; 
(e) 
nationality or immigration status; 
(f) 
change of course or institution; 
(g) 
an amendment to the Scheme or the Regulations during the 
academic year; a student will only become eligible in these 
circumstances in respect of any relevant period after such an 
amendment has come into operation. Where a permanent change 
by reason of an amendment to the Scheme or the Regulations


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by reason of an amendment to the Scheme or the Regulations 
during the academic year arises, awards or adjustments in cases 
assessed under this article shall be made with effect from the 
month in which the change in circumstances occurs.  
(2) If there is a change in income of any of the persons whose income is 
under consideration, between 1 January following the reference period and the 
end of the academic year, and the awarding authority is satisfied that the change


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end of the academic year, and the awarding authority is satisfied that the change 
in income is likely to obtain for the duration of the approved full-time course or 
for the foreseeable future, a review of the application may be applied for or, 
where a student grant application form was not completed for the academic year, 
an application can be made for a student grant under such change in 
circumstances. 
(3) Where the awarding authority is satisfied that a change in circumstances


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circumstances. 
(3) Where the awarding authority is satisfied that a change in circumstances 
has occurred within the meaning of paragraph (2) the application will be assessed 
based on current income. 
(4) Where a permanent change in the reckonable income occurs, awards or 
adjustments in cases assessed under this article shall be made with effect from 
the month in which the change in circumstances occurs. 
(5) The amount of the tuition fee element, the student contribution element,


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(5) The amount of the tuition fee element, the student contribution element, 
postgraduate fee contribution and maintenance elements of the grant payable in 
respect of a month shall be one-ninth of the annual rate. 
34  [70] 
 
Part 5 
APPLICATION, PROVISION OF INFORMATION AND PAYMENT 
Appropriate awarding authority 
33. 
(1) An applicant shall apply to the awarding authority for a grant. 
(2) If, at the time of application, an applicant is ordinarily resident in another


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(2) If, at the time of application, an applicant is ordinarily resident in another 
Member State, a state in the European Economic Area, the Swiss Confederation 
or a relevant specified jurisdiction, such applicant shall make an application to 
the awarding authority. 
(3) An applicant shall make an application to the awarding authority if they 
wish to attend, or will be attending, an approved full-time course in an approved 
institution as set out in the Regulations.


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institution as set out in the Regulations. 
(4) The awarding authority may as appropriate cancel an application. 
 
Application time limits 
34. (1) Applications duly completed must be received by the awarding 
authority not later than 10th July 2025. 
(2) The awarding authority may at its discretion accept an application which 
is not received on time. 
(3) Notwithstanding paragraph (2), an application may not be accepted by


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is not received on time. 
(3) Notwithstanding paragraph (2), an application may not be accepted by 
the awarding authority later than one month before the end of the academic year 
to which the application relates. 
 
Applications generally 
35. (1) An applicant may not apply for or receive more than one grant at any 
one time. 
(2) An applicant must apply for a grant in connection with each academic 
year of an approved full-time course by completing and submitting to the


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year of an approved full-time course by completing and submitting to the 
awarding authority an application in the format approved by the awarding 
authority which must be supported by such documentary evidence as required 
by the awarding authority. 
(3) The awarding authority may take such steps and make such inquiries as 
it considers necessary including the exchange of data between bodies listed in 
Schedule 2 of the Act or prescribed by Regulations to determine whether the


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Schedule 2 of the Act or prescribed by Regulations to determine whether the 
applicant is an eligible student, whether he or she qualifies for a grant and the 
amount of a grant payable. 
(4) An applicant shall furnish the awarding authority with the personal, 
family, financial and other information that the awarding authority may seek in 
relation to the applicant, the applicant's spouse, civil partner or cohabitant, each


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relation to the applicant, the applicant's spouse, civil partner or cohabitant, each 
parent of the applicant, and any dependent child, as appropriate, and shall 
produce evidence, in such form as may be required by the awarding authority, to 
verify the information, in order that the awarding authority may determine 
whether or not the applicant is eligible to receive a grant. 
[70]  35 
 
 
Submission of information 
36. (1) An applicant shall furnish to the awarding authority such


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Submission of information 
36. (1) An applicant shall furnish to the awarding authority such 
information as it requests and shall produce evidence in a form acceptable to the 
awarding authority, in order that the awarding authority may determine whether 
or not the applicant is eligible to receive a grant. 
(2) The awarding authority may stipulate the period of time within which the 
information, further information or evidence shall be submitted or produced to 
it.


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information, further information or evidence shall be submitted or produced to 
it. 
(3) Without prejudice to article 35(4), the following information shall be 
furnished to the awarding authority in relation to the applicant and, as 
appropriate, the applicant's spouse, civil partner or cohabitant, each parent of the 
applicant, and any other dependent child, as appropriate, namely— 
(a) 
personal public service number; 
(b) 
date of birth; 
(c) 
reckonable income; 
(d)


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(a) 
personal public service number; 
(b) 
date of birth; 
(c) 
reckonable income; 
(d) 
nationality, immigration status and residency; 
(e) 
information in relation to any matters in this Scheme; and 
(f) 
normal residence. 
(4) In addition, the applicant shall furnish the following information to the 
awarding authority— 
(a) 
whether he or she is a mature student, dependent student, 
independent student or tuition student; 
(b) 
marital status; 
(c) 
whether he or she has dependants; 
(d)


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(b) 
marital status; 
(c) 
whether he or she has dependants; 
(d) 
academic history; 
(e) 
whether he or she is commencing his or her first year of study, is 
a student in progression or has previous attendance at further or 
higher education; 
(f) 
the approved course that the applicant attends or intends to attend 
and in respect of which he or she is applying for a grant; 
(g) 
the approved institution which is providing the course; and 
(h)


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(g) 
the approved institution which is providing the course; and 
(h) 
any funding, awards and financial assistance in relation to his or 
her course of study. 
(5) For the purpose of paragraph (6), the awarding authority may require a 
written declaration to be signed, or a statement to be made in such other form as 
it may require, by the applicant and the applicant’s parents or, in the case of an 
independent student, by the applicant and the applicant’s spouse, civil partner or


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independent student, by the applicant and the applicant’s spouse, civil partner or 
cohabitant, if applicable. 
(6) It will be the responsibility of the applicant to ensure that all information 
provided in relation to his or her application is full, complete and accurate in 
36  [70] 
 
every respect. If such information contains any deliberate material omission or 
inaccuracy, the applicant shall be liable to prosecution, loss of grant and


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inaccuracy, the applicant shall be liable to prosecution, loss of grant and 
repayment of any portion of a grant already received in line with the provisions 
of sections 23 and 24 of the Act. 
(7) A statement, other than a signed written declaration, made in accordance  
with paragraph (5) in respect of any person referred to in that paragraph may, 
with the consent of that person, be made on his or her behalf by any other person


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with the consent of that person, be made on his or her behalf by any other person 
referred to in that paragraph and it shall not be necessary for the awarding 
authority to require evidence of any such consent. 
 
Payment of maintenance grants 
37. (1) Payment of a maintenance grant shall be made by the awarding 
authority. 
(2) The awarding authority shall pay maintenance grants in nine instalments, 
in line with the annual rates specified in Schedule 3.


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in line with the annual rates specified in Schedule 3. 
(3) Payments of maintenance grants should be made in euro and are to be 
made in such manner as the Minister considers appropriate, either by payable 
order or by electronic funds transfer. The Minister may make it a condition of 
entitlement where payment is being made by electronic funds transfer that the 
eligible student must provide particulars of a bank, building society, credit union


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eligible student must provide particulars of a bank, building society, credit union 
account in the State or in the Single Euro Payments Area (SEPA) that can accept 
electronic funds transfer. 
(4) Payments of maintenance grants made by payable order shall be 
addressed to the student, care of the Bursar's or Principal's office of the 
institution. 
(5) An approved institution is required to verify to the awarding authority at


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institution. 
(5) An approved institution is required to verify to the awarding authority at 
agreed intervals that a person awarded a maintenance grant is enrolled or 
registered with the institution, in accordance with its rules, and is continuing to 
attend the course for which they have been approved for in that institution. The 
awarding authority must not pay the first or subsequent maintenance grant 
instalments, or, where it has been determined not to pay a maintenance grant,


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instalments, or, where it has been determined not to pay a maintenance grant, 
make any payment of maintenance, to the student before it has received such 
verification. 
 
Payment of fee grants 
38. (1) The tuition fee element of a fee grant payable under this Scheme 
shall be paid by the awarding authority, to the approved institution, in line with 
the rate of fee awarded, upon receipt of— 
(a) 
an appropriate invoice from the approved institution in respect of


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(a) 
an appropriate invoice from the approved institution in respect of 
the applicable tuition fee, or some other confirmation as 
determined by the awarding authority; 
(b) 
confirmation of registration, as supplied by the approved 
institution; and 
[70]  37 
 
(c) 
confirmation of whether the student is in receipt of, or eligible 
for, assistance towards the fee from any other source. 
(2) The student contribution element of a fee grant payable under this


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(2) The student contribution element of a fee grant payable under this 
Scheme shall be paid by the awarding authority, to the approved institution, in 
line with the student contribution rate awarded, upon receipt of— 
(a) 
an appropriate invoice from the approved institution in respect of 
the applicable student contribution fee, or some other 
confirmation as determined by the awarding authority; 
(b) 
confirmation of registration, as supplied by the approved 
institution; and 
(c)


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(b) 
confirmation of registration, as supplied by the approved 
institution; and 
(c) 
confirmation of whether the student is in receipt of, or eligible 
for, assistance towards the student contribution element of the fee    
grant from any other source. 
(3) The field trip element of a fee grant payable under this Scheme shall be 
paid by the awarding authority to the student or tuition student, in line with 
provisions in Schedule 4, upon receipt of the following documents— 
(a)


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provisions in Schedule 4, upon receipt of the following documents— 
(a) 
a field trip form— 
(i) 
with the relevant sections completed, verified and stamped 
by the approved institution; and 
(ii) 
with relevant sections completed and signed by the student   
or tuition student; and  
(b) 
receipts for expenses being claimed. 
 
Payment of postgraduate fee contribution 
39. (1) The postgraduate fee contribution payable under this Scheme shall


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39. (1) The postgraduate fee contribution payable under this Scheme shall 
be paid by the awarding authority, to the approved institution upon receipt of— 
(a) 
an appropriate invoice from the approved institution in respect of 
the applicable postgraduate fee contribution, or some other 
confirmation as determined by the awarding authority; 
(b) 
confirmation of registration, as supplied by the approved 
institution; and 
(c) 
confirmation of whether the student is in receipt of, or eligible


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institution; and 
(c) 
confirmation of whether the student is in receipt of, or eligible 
for, assistance towards the fee from any other source. 
 
Overpayments 
40. Any overpayment made in respect of a grant awarded under this Scheme 
may be recovered by the paying awarding authority in accordance with section 
24 of the Act. 
 
 
 
38  [70] 
 
Part 6 
APPEALS 
Appeals to appeals officers 
41. Where an applicant is aggrieved by a determination of the awarding


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41. Where an applicant is aggrieved by a determination of the awarding 
authority under this Scheme he or she may, pursuant to section 20 of the Act, 
appeal against that determination to an appeals officer designated by the 
awarding authority under that section. 
 
Appeals to Appeals Board 
42. Where an applicant is aggrieved by a determination of an appeals officer 
under section 20(5) of the Act, he or she may, pursuant to section 21 of the Act,


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under section 20(5) of the Act, he or she may, pursuant to section 21 of the Act, 
appeal against that determination to the Appeals Board. 
 
 
[70]  39 
 
SCHEDULE 1 
 
Reckonable Income Limits for the 2025/26 academic year 
 
1. 
Reckonable income limits: 
The period 1 January 2024 to 31 December 2024 is the reference period for the 
academic year 2025/26. 
A tuition student does not qualify for any maintenance grants. The income limits


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A tuition student does not qualify for any maintenance grants. The income limits 
that apply to tuition students are outlined in Tables C, D, E & G of this Schedule. 
 
PLC students 
 
Table A: Income limits for maintenance grants (as specified in Schedule 3) 
To qualify 
for: 
Special 
Rate* 
Standard rate 
Full 
maintenance 
Band 1 
Standard rate 
Part 
maintenance 
Band 2 
Standard 
rate 
Part 
maintenance 
Band 3 
Standard 
rate 
Part 
maintenance 
Band 4 
No. of 
dependent 
children


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Part 
maintenance 
Band 3 
Standard 
rate 
Part 
maintenance 
Band 4 
No. of 
dependent 
children 
Less than 4 
€27,400 
€47,010 
€48,270 
€51,040 
€58,470 
4 to 7 
€30,030 
€51,520 
€52,900 
€55,940 
€64,080 
8 or more 
€32,555 
€55,850 
€57,345 
€60,635 
€69,465 
Additional increments that may be applied to the income limits in Table A for 
Maintenance Grants** 
+ increment 
for each 
additional 
relevant 
person 
+ € 4,950 + €4,950 
+ €4,785 
+ €4,785 
+ €4,785 
*


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for each 
additional 
relevant 
person 
+ € 4,950 + €4,950 
+ €4,785 
+ €4,785 
+ €4,785 
* 
To be eligible for the special rate of maintenance grant the reckonable 
income on 31 December 2024 must include an eligible payment listed in 
Schedule 2. 
** 
Increments which may be added to the relevant income limits. 
 
 
40  [70] 
 
Undergraduate students 
 
Table B: Income limits for maintenance grants (as specified in Schedule 3) 
To qualify  for: 
Special 
Rate* 
Standard 
rate 
Full


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To qualify  for: 
Special 
Rate* 
Standard 
rate 
Full 
maintenance 
Band 1 
Standard rate 
Part 
maintenance 
Band 2 
Standard rate 
Part 
maintenance 
Band 3 
Standard rate 
Part 
maintenance 
Band 4 
No. of 
dependent 
children 
Less than 4 
€27,400 
€47,010 
€48,270 
€51,040 
€58,470 
4 to 7 
€30,030 
€51,520 
€52,900 
€55,940 
€64,080 
8 or more 
€32,555 
€55,850 
€57,345 
€60,635 
€69,465 
Additional increments that may be applied to the income limits in Table B for


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€60,635 
€69,465 
Additional increments that may be applied to the income limits in Table B for   
Maintenance Grants** 
+ 
increment 
for each 
additional 
relevant 
person 
+ €4,950 
+ € 4,950 
+ €4,785 
+€4,785 
+€4,785 
* 
To be eligible for the special rate of maintenance grant the reckonable 
income on 31 December 2024 must include an eligible payment listed in 
Schedule 2. 
** 
Increments which may be added to the relevant income limits.


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Schedule 2. 
** 
Increments which may be added to the relevant income limits. 
 
Any maintenance grant awarded under the income limits in Table B will also 
include an award for the full student contribution grant, where the student 
contribution is chargeable. 
 
 
 
[70]  41 
 
Table C: Income limits for the student contribution grant (as specified in 
Schedule 4) 
To qualify for: Student Contribution 
100% 
Student Contribution 
50% 
Student Contribution 
€500 
No. of 
dependent 
children


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100% 
Student Contribution 
50% 
Student Contribution 
€500 
No. of 
dependent 
children 
Less than 4 
€64,315 
€71,300 
€115,000 
4 to 7 
€70,490 
€78,145 
€126,040 
8 or more 
€76,410 
€84,710 
€136,630 
Additional increments that may be applied to the income limits in Table C for Student 
Contribution Grants** 
+ increment for 
each additional 
relevant person 
+ €4,950 
+ €4,950 
+ €4,950 
** 
Increments which may be added to the relevant income limits.


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+ €4,950 
+ €4,950 
+ €4,950 
** 
Increments which may be added to the relevant income limits. 
 
Table D: Income limits for tuition fees (as specified in Schedule 4) 
To qualify for: 
(i) 100% tuition fees 
(ii) Field trip expenses 
50% tuition fees 
No. of dependent children 
Less than 4 
€58,470 
€64,315 
4 to 7 
€64,080 
€70,490 
8 or more 
€69,465 
€76,410 
Additional increments that may be applied to the income limits in Table D for tuition 
fee grants** 
+   increment    for 
each


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fee grants** 
+   increment    for 
each 
additional 
relevant person 
+€4,785 
+€4,950 
** 
Increments which may be added to the relevant income limits. 
 
 
42  [70] 
 
Postgraduate students 
 
Table E: Income limits for tuition fees (as specified in Schedule 4) 
To qualify for: 
(i) Tuition fees * 
(ii) Field trip expenses 
No. of dependent children 
Less than 4 
€27,400 
4 to 7 
€30,030 
8 or more 
€32,555 
Additional increments that may be applied to the income limits in Table E for


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8 or more 
€32,555 
Additional increments that may be applied to the income limits in Table E for 
tuition fees ** 
+ increment for each 
additional relevant 
persons 
                                    + € 4,950 
* 
To be eligible for tuition fees the conditions for the special rate of 
maintenance grant must be satisfied. 
** 
Increments which may be added to the relevant income limits. 
 
 
[70]  43 
 
Table F: Income Limits for Maintenance Grants (as specified in Schedule 3)


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[70]  43 
 
Table F: Income Limits for Maintenance Grants (as specified in Schedule 3) 
To qualify  for: 
Special 
Rate* 
Standard rate 
Full 
maintenance 
Band 1 
Standard rate 
Part 
maintenance 
Band 2 
Standard rate 
Part 
maintenance 
Band 3 
Standard rate 
Part 
maintenance 
Band 4 
No. of 
dependent 
children 
Less than 4 
€27,400 
€47,010 
€48,270 
€51,040 
€58,470 
4 to 7 
€30,030 
€51,520 
€52,900 
€55,940 
€64,080 
8 or more 
€32,555 
€55,850 
€57,345 
€60,635 
€69,465


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€51,520 
€52,900 
€55,940 
€64,080 
8 or more 
€32,555 
€55,850 
€57,345 
€60,635 
€69,465 
Additional increments that may be applied to the income limits in Table F for   
Maintenance Grants** 
+ increment for 
each additional 
relevant person 
+ €4,950 
+ € 4,950 
+ €4,785 
+€4,785 
+€4,785 
* 
To be eligible for the special rate of maintenance grant the reckonable 
income on 31 December 2024 must include an eligible payment listed in 
Schedule 2. 
**


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income on 31 December 2024 must include an eligible payment listed in 
Schedule 2. 
** 
Increments which may be added to the relevant income limits. 
  
 
 
44  [70] 
 
Table G: Income limits for postgraduate fee contribution (as specified in 
Schedule 4) 
To qualify for: 
Postgraduate Fee Contribution 
No. of dependent children 
Less than 4 
€64,315 
4 to 7 
€70,490 
8 or more 
€76,410 
Additional increments that may be applied to the income limits in Table G for


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8 or more 
€76,410 
Additional increments that may be applied to the income limits in Table G for 
postgraduate fee contribution** 
+ increment for each additional 
relevant person 
+ €4,950 
** 
Increments which may be applied to the relevant income limits. 
 
In the 2025/26 academic year, where the applicant plus one or more relevant 
persons are attending an approved full-time course for the purposes of this 
Scheme, an approved part-time course or a full-time course of at least one year's


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Scheme, an approved part-time course or a full-time course of at least one year's 
duration in further or higher education and training in the State, any other 
Member State or a relevant specified jurisdiction leading to a major award at 
Levels 5 to 10, of the framework of qualifications or to an equivalent 
qualification made by a designated awarding body in the State, another Member 
State or a relevant  specified jurisdiction the reckonable income limits for each


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State or a relevant  specified jurisdiction the reckonable income limits for each 
of the rates of grant in Tables A, B, C, D, E, F & G may be increased by an 
additional increment as identified. 
 
2. 
Holiday Earnings: 
A deduction of up to a maximum amount of €8,424 may be applied to student 
earnings outside of term time but within the reference period. 
 
 
[70]  45 
 
SCHEDULE 2 
Eligible Long-term payments for the special rate of maintenance grant for the 
2025/26 academic year


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2025/26 academic year 
 
As at 31 December 2024, the reckonable income must include one of the eligible 
payments listed in this Schedule, or its equivalent from a Member State or a 
relevant specified jurisdiction, net of— 
(a) 
income disregards (as set out in article 22(4) of this Scheme); and 
(b) 
 Increase for a Qualified Child (IQC), where paid by the 
Department of Social Protection. 
 
Social Assistance Payments 
1. 
Blind Pension 
2. 
Carer's Allowance 
3. 
One Parent Family Payment


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1. 
Blind Pension 
2. 
Carer's Allowance 
3. 
One Parent Family Payment 
4. 
Jobseekers Allowance Transition 
5. 
Deserted Wife's Allowance 
6. 
Disability Allowance 
7. 
Farm Assist 
8. 
Jobseeker's Allowance (in respect of a period of 65 consecutive weeks 
of unemployment during which an applicant was in receipt of 
Jobseekers Allowance)*  
9. 
State Pension (Non-Contributory) 
10. 
Guardian's Payment (Non-Contributory) 
11. 
Pre-retirement allowance 
12.


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10. 
Guardian's Payment (Non-Contributory) 
11. 
Pre-retirement allowance 
12. 
Widow's, Widower’s or Surviving Civil Partner’s (Non-Contributory) 
Pension 
13. 
Supplementary Welfare Allowance (where held for 12 consecutive 
calendar months) 
 
Social Insurance Payments 
14. 
Benefit Payment for 65 year olds 
15. 
Carer's Benefit 
16. 
Deserted Wife's Benefit 
17. 
Invalidity Pension 
18. 
Incapacity Supplement 
19. 
Occupational Injuries Death Benefit (Orphan's Pension) 
46  [70] 
 
20.


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19. 
Occupational Injuries Death Benefit (Orphan's Pension) 
46  [70] 
 
20. 
Occupational Injuries Benefit — Death Benefit (Widow or Widower’s 
Pension) 
21. 
State Pension (Contributory) 
22. 
Guardian's Payment (Contributory) 
23. 
Jobseeker's Benefit* 
24. 
Widow's, Widower’s or Surviving Civil Partner’s (Contributory) 
Pension 
 
Designated Programmes 
25. 
Back to Education Allowance (Second Level and Third Level Options) 
26. 
Short-Term Enterprise Allowance (STEA) 
27.


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26. 
Short-Term Enterprise Allowance (STEA) 
27. 
Back to Work Enterprise Allowance 
28. 
Community Employment Scheme 
29. 
Rural Social Scheme 
30. 
Tús Initiative 
31. 
Gateway Scheme 
32. 
Further 
Education 
and 
Training 
(FET) 
Courses, 
including 
Apprenticeships 
33. 
Part-time job incentive scheme 
34. 
Vocational Training Opportunities Scheme (VTOS) 
 
Others 
35. 
Foster Care and Aftercare Allowances or Adoption Maintenance 
Allowance where paid in respect of the  applicant 
36.


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Allowance where paid in respect of the  applicant 
36. 
Independent Living Allowance for Young People in Residential Care 
37. 
Working Family Payment / Family Income Supplement (FIS) 
38. 
In receipt of payments under the FIT (Fastrack to IT) initiative 
equivalent to a social welfare payment 
39. 
Partial Capacity Benefit where the recipient has an underlying 
entitlement to Invalidity Pension 
40. 
Participants on a training course approved by a Government


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entitlement to Invalidity Pension 
40. 
Participants on a training course approved by a Government 
Department, State Agency or Area Partnership and who were in receipt 
of an eligible payment prior to progressing to the programme 
41. 
Grant aided employees in Community Services Programmes (formerly 
social economy enterprises) 
 
*Combined periods of Jobseeker's Allowance and Jobseeker's Benefit and other 
eligible payments for purposes of meeting the prescribed period of 65 
[70]  47


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eligible payments for purposes of meeting the prescribed period of 65 
[70]  47 
 
consecutive weeks of unemployment during which an applicant was in receipt 
of either Jobseeker’s Allowance or Jobseeker’s Benefit. 
 
The Department of Social Protection Illness Benefit or COVID-19 Enhanced 
Illness Benefit or COVID-19 Pandemic Unemployment Payment or Maternity 
Benefit can also be used to combine periods of Jobseeker's Allowance and


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Benefit can also be used to combine periods of Jobseeker's Allowance and 
Jobseeker's Benefit provided a period of Jobseeker's Allowance or Jobseeker’s 
Benefit comes directly before and directly after the period of Illness Benefit or 
COVID-19 Enhanced Illness Benefit or COVID-19 Pandemic Unemployment 
Payment or Maternity Benefit. 
 
Periods on the Youth Employment Support Scheme (YESS), JobBridge, 
National Internship Scheme or the Work Placement Experience Programme can


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National Internship Scheme or the Work Placement Experience Programme can 
also be combined with periods on other listed eligible payments provided a 
period on an eligible payment comes directly before and directly after the period 
on the Youth Employment Support Scheme (YESS), JobBridge, National 
Internship Scheme or the Work Placement Experience Programme. 
 
 
48  [70] 
 
SCHEDULE 3 
Annual rates of maintenance grant for the 2025/26 academic year 
Non-Adjacent Rate 
Adjacent Rate


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Annual rates of maintenance grant for the 2025/26 academic year 
Non-Adjacent Rate 
Adjacent Rate 
Special rate of maintenance 
€7,586  
€3,230  
Standard rate—Full Maintenance 
Band 1 
€4,292  
€1,774  
Standard rate—Part Maintenance 
Band 2 
€3,332  
€1,343  
Standard rate—Part Maintenance 
Band 3 
€2,502  
€975  
Standard rate—Part Maintenance 
Band 4 
€1,666  
€612  
 
 
 
[70]  49 
 
SCHEDULE 4 
Maximum overall limits for a fee grant for the 2025/26 academic year 
Table 1


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SCHEDULE 4 
Maximum overall limits for a fee grant for the 2025/26 academic year 
Table 1 
Undergraduate Tuition Fee Element 
In respect of the following courses 
Maximum fee 
limit Full (100%) 
grant in respect of 
tuition fees 
Maximum fee limit Part 
(50%) grant in respect 
of tuition fees 
Approved undergraduate courses to which 
the Free Fees Schemes applies. 
100% of the EU 
rate of fee 
50% of the 
EU rate of fee 
Approved undergraduate courses provided


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100% of the EU 
rate of fee 
50% of the 
EU rate of fee 
Approved undergraduate courses provided 
in the State to which the Free Fees 
Schemes does not apply. 
€6,270 
€3,135 
 
Table 2 
Student Contribution Element 
Rate 
Full (100%) grant in respect of the 
student contribution charge 
€3,000 
Part (50%) grant in respect of the 
student  contribution charge 
€1,500 
Part (€500) grant in respect of the student 
contribution charge 
€500 
 
 
 
50  [70] 
 
Table 3 
Field Trip Element


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contribution charge 
€500 
 
 
 
50  [70] 
 
Table 3 
Field Trip Element 
[Calculation of value available towards compulsory costs] 
A student or tuition student who would have 
qualified for 100% tuition fee element of a 
fee grant but for the Free Fees Schemes and 
was awarded a grant towards the student 
contribution charge. 
Maximum Fee Limit: 
Less the tuition fee 
claimed from the State by 
the institution under the 
Free Fees Schemes: 
 
Less Student Contribution 
 
€6,270 
-€x,xxx


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the institution under the 
Free Fees Schemes: 
 
Less Student Contribution 
 
€6,270 
-€x,xxx 
 
      €3,000 
Equals maximum  amount 
if any available towards 
field trip element 
€y,yyy 
Student or tuition student who qualifies  for 
100% undergraduate tuition fees or 
postgraduate tuition fees under the scheme 
of grants. 
Max Fee Limit Amount: 
Less EU rate of fee 
applicable to the 
course/invoiced to the 
student: 
€6,270 
-€x,xxx 
Equals the maximum 
amount if any  available


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course/invoiced to the 
student: 
€6,270 
-€x,xxx 
Equals the maximum 
amount if any  available 
towards field trip element 
€y,yyy 
 
Table 4 
 
Postgraduate Grants 
 
In respect of the following 
courses 
Maximum fee  limit 
for grant  in respect 
of tuition fees 
Postgraduate Fee 
Contribution 
Approved postgraduate  courses 
provided in the State or Northern 
Ireland. 
€6,270 
€4,000 
 
 
 
[70]  51 
 
The Minister for Public Expenditure, National Development Plan Delivery and


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[70]  51 
 
The Minister for Public Expenditure, National Development Plan Delivery and 
Reform consents to the making of the foregoing Scheme. 
 
 
 
 
GIVEN under the Official Seal of the Minister for Public 
Expenditure, National Development Plan Delivery and 
Reform, 
6 March, 2025. 
 
JACK CHAMBERS, 
Minister for Public Expenditure, National Development 
Plan Delivery and Reform. 
 
 
 
 
 
 
GIVEN under my Official Seal, 
6 March, 2025. 
 
JAMES LAWLESS,


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GIVEN under my Official Seal, 
6 March, 2025. 
 
JAMES LAWLESS, 
Minister for Further and Higher Education, Research, 
Innovation and Science. 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
52  [70] 
 
EXPLANATORY NOTE 
 
(This note is not part of the Instrument and does not purport to be a legal 
interpretation.) 
 
This Scheme of Grant is made pursuant to powers conferred on the Minister for 
Further and Higher Education, Research, Innovation and Science under the 
Student Support Act 2011.


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Student Support Act 2011. 
This Scheme may be cited as the Student Grant Scheme 2025. 
 
 
[70]  53 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
BAILE ÁTHA CLIATH 
ARNA FHOILSIÚ AG OIFIG AN tSOLÁTHAIR 
Le ceannach díreach ó 
FOILSEACHÁIN RIALTAIS, 
BÓTHAR BHAILE UÍ BHEOLÁIN, 
CILL MHAIGHNEANN, 
BAILE ÁTHA CLIATH 8, 
D08 XAO6  
 
Teil: 046 942 3100 
r-phost: publications@opw.ie 
—————— 
 
 
DUBLIN 
PUBLISHED BY THE STATIONERY OFFICE 
To be purchased from 
GOVERNMENT PUBLICATIONS, 
MOUNTSHANNON ROAD,


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To be purchased from 
GOVERNMENT PUBLICATIONS, 
MOUNTSHANNON ROAD, 
KILMAINHAM, DUBLIN 8, 
D08 XAO6 
 
Tel: 046 942 3100 
E-mail: publications@opw.ie 
—————— 
 
 
€ 8.00 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
(HEEA-35) 30. 3/25. Propylon.


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STATUTORY INSTRUMENTS. 
 
 
 
 
S.I. No. 215 of 2025 
 
 
 
 
________________ 
 
 
 
 
EUROPEAN UNION (GENDER BALANCE ON BOARDS OF CERTAIN 
COMPANIES) REGULATIONS 2025 
 
 
 
2  [215] 
S.I. No. 215 of 2025 
 
EUROPEAN UNION (GENDER BALANCE ON BOARDS OF CERTAIN 
COMPANIES) REGULATIONS 2025 
 
I, NORMA FOLEY, Minister for Children, Disability and Equality, in exercise 
of the powers conferred on me by section 3 of the European Communities Act


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of the powers conferred on me by section 3 of the European Communities Act 
1972 (No. 27 of 1972), for the purpose of giving effect to Directive (EU) 
2022/2381 of the European Parliament and of the Council of 23 November 
20221, hereby make the following regulations: 
 
Short title and cesser 
1. (1) These Regulations may be cited as the European Union (Gender 
Balance on Boards of Certain Companies) Regulations 2025.


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Balance on Boards of Certain Companies) Regulations 2025. 
(2) Subject to Article 13(4) of the Directive, these Regulations shall cease to 
be in operation on and from 31 December 2038. 
 
Definitions 
2. 
In these Regulations - 
“applicable listed company” means a relevant listed company that does not 
achieve the objective specified in paragraph (2) of Regulation 3 by the date 
specified in paragraph (1) of that Regulation;


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specified in paragraph (1) of that Regulation; 
“board”, in relation to a relevant listed company, means the board of directors of 
the company; 
“company” means - 
(a) 
a company formed and registered under the Companies Act 2014 
(No. 38 of 2014), or 
(b) 
an existing company within the meaning of that Act; 
“Directive” means Directive (EU) 2022/2381 of the European Parliament and of 
the Council of 23 November 20221;


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the Council of 23 November 20221; 
“executive director”, in relation to a relevant listed company, means a member 
of a board who is engaged in the daily management of the company; 
“micro, small and medium-sized enterprise or SME” means a company that 
employs less than 250 persons and has an annual turnover not exceeding 
€50,000,000 or an annual balance sheet total not exceeding €43,000,000; 
“Minister” means the Minister for Children, Disability and Equality;


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“Minister” means the Minister for Children, Disability and Equality; 
“non-executive director”, in relation to a relevant listed company, means a 
member, other than an executive director, of a board; 
“publish”, in relation to the Minister, means publish or cause to be published; 
 
1 OJ No. L 315, 07.12.2022, p. 44 
Notice of the making of this Statutory Instrument was published in 
"Iris Oifigiúil" of 30th May, 2025. 
[215]  3


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"Iris Oifigiúil" of 30th May, 2025. 
[215]  3 
“regulated market” has the meaning given to it in Article 4(1), point 21, of 
Directive 2014/65/EU of the European Parliament and of the Council of 15 May 
20142; 
“relevant listed company” means a company, other than a micro, small and 
medium-sized enterprise or SME - 
(a) 
that has its registered office in the State, and 
(b) 
the shares in which are admitted to trading on a regulated market 
in at least one Member State;


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the shares in which are admitted to trading on a regulated market 
in at least one Member State; 
“relevant year” means a period of 12 months beginning on the 1st day of 
December in any year.  
 
Objectives with regard to gender balance on boards 
3. (1) A relevant listed company shall be subject to the objective specified 
in paragraph (2) to be reached not later than 30 June 2026. 
(2) Subject to paragraph (3), the objective referred to in paragraph (1) is that


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(2) Subject to paragraph (3), the objective referred to in paragraph (1) is that 
at least 40% of the non-executive directors of the relevant listed company 
concerned are members of the underrepresented sex. 
(3) The number of non-executive director positions deemed necessary to 
achieve the objective specified in paragraph (2) shall be the number closest to 
the proportion of 40% but not exceeding 49% as specified in the Schedule. 
(4) A relevant listed company shall - 
(a)


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(4) A relevant listed company shall - 
(a) 
set, in writing, individual quantitative objectives with a view to 
improving the gender balance among executive directors on its 
board, and 
(b) 
specify, in writing, the steps the relevant listed company has 
taken, or is taking, in aiming to achieve, not later than 30 June 
2026, the individual quantitative objectives referred to in 
subparagraph (a). 
(5) A relevant listed company shall, not later than 30 November 2026,


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subparagraph (a). 
(5) A relevant listed company shall, not later than 30 November 2026, 
publish on its website the information specified in subparagraphs (a) and (b) of 
paragraph (4). 
 
Means to achieve objectives 
4. (1) An applicable listed company shall adjust its processes for selecting 
candidates for appointment or election as non-executive directors whereby it 
shall - 
(a) 
select such candidates on the basis of a comparative assessment 
of the qualifications of each candidate,


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of the qualifications of each candidate, 
 
2 OJ No. L 173, 12.6.2014, p. 349 
4  [215] 
(b) 
for the purpose of paragraph (a), establish in advance of the 
selection process clear, neutrally formulated and unambiguous 
criteria in writing, and 
(c) 
apply, or cause to be applied, the criteria established under 
subparagraph (b) in a non-discriminatory manner throughout the 
entire selection process, including during the preparation of


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entire selection process, including during the preparation of 
vacancy notices, the pre-selection phase, the shortlisting phase 
and the establishment of pools of such candidates. 
(2) Where applicable, an applicable listed company shall, not later than 30 
November in each year, beginning with the year 2026 - 
(a) 
document in writing its compliance, during the period from 1 July 
2026 to 29 November 2026 and from 1 December to 29


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2026 to 29 November 2026 and from 1 December to 29 
November in each relevant year thereafter, with the obligations 
provided for in paragraph (1), and 
(b) 
provide to the Minister, in such form and manner as the Minister 
may specify, a copy of the document referred to in subparagraph 
(a). 
(3) Where an applicable listed company is selecting candidates for 
appointment or election as non-executive directors, the company shall, in


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appointment or election as non-executive directors, the company shall, in 
choosing between candidates who are equally qualified in terms of suitability, 
competence and professional performance, give priority to the candidate of the 
underrepresented sex unless, in exceptional cases, reasons of greater legal 
weight, such as the pursuit of other diversity policies, invoked within the context 
of an objective assessment which takes into account the specific situation of a


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of an objective assessment which takes into account the specific situation of a 
candidate of the other sex and which is based on non-discriminatory criteria, 
override the priority, which should otherwise be accorded to the candidate of the 
underrepresented sex, in favour of the candidate who is not of the 
underrepresented sex. 
(4) Where an applicable listed company is selecting candidates for 
appointment or election as non-executive directors, an applicable listed company


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appointment or election as non-executive directors, an applicable listed company 
shall, not later than 30 November in each year, beginning with the year 2026, 
either - 
(a) 
(i) 
document, in writing, its compliance, during the period 
from 1 July 2026 to 29 November 2026 and from 1 
December to 29 November in each relevant year thereafter, 
with the obligations provided for in paragraph (3), and 
(ii) 
provide to the Minister, in such form and manner as the


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(ii) 
provide to the Minister, in such form and manner as the 
Minister may specify, a copy of the document referred to in 
clause (i), or 
(b) 
where the priority which should otherwise have been accorded to 
the candidate of the underrepresented sex was overridden, 
provide to the Minister, in such form and manner as the Minister 
may specify, a list of the reasons of greater legal weight it applied 
in order to override that priority.


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in order to override that priority. 
(5) Where a candidate who was considered during the selection of candidates 
for appointment or election as a non-executive director of an applicable listed 
[215]  5 
company so requests, the applicable listed company shall notify the candidate, 
in writing, of the following: 
(a) 
the qualification criteria upon which the selection was based; 
(b) 
the criteria specified in paragraph (1)(b); 
(c)


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(b) 
the criteria specified in paragraph (1)(b); 
(c) 
where applicable, the specific considerations exceptionally 
overriding the priority that should otherwise have been accorded 
to the candidate of the underrepresented sex in favour of a 
candidate who is not of the underrepresented sex. 
(6) Where a candidate for appointment or election as a non-executive 
director of an applicable listed company of the underrepresented sex is not


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director of an applicable listed company of the underrepresented sex is not 
selected for such appointment or election and the candidate establishes facts, 
before a court or other competent authority, from which it may be presumed that 
he or she was as equally qualified as the candidate of the other sex who was 
selected for appointment or election as a non-executive director, it is for that 
applicable listed company to prove that it did not breach paragraph (3).


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applicable listed company to prove that it did not breach paragraph (3). 
 
Information to be provided to shareholders or employees 
5. (1) This Regulation applies where the process for selecting candidates for 
appointment or election as non-executive directors of an applicable listed 
company is made through a vote of shareholders or employees of the applicable 
listed company. 
(2) Where this Regulation applies, an applicable listed company shall ensure


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listed company. 
(2) Where this Regulation applies, an applicable listed company shall ensure 
that the shareholders or employees of the company who vote for the appointment 
or election of a candidate as a non-executive director of the applicable listed 
company are properly informed, in writing, in advance of the appointment or 
election concerned regarding the measures provided for in these Regulations, 
including the penalties provided for in Regulation 7 for non-compliance by the


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including the penalties provided for in Regulation 7 for non-compliance by the 
applicable listed company with such measures. 
(3) Where this Regulation applies, an applicable listed company shall, not 
later than 30 November in each year, beginning with the year 2026, provide to 
the Minister, in such form and manner as the Minister may specify, a copy of the 
information referred to in paragraph (2). 
 
Reporting 
6. (1) A relevant listed company shall, not later than 30 November (in this


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Reporting 
6. (1) A relevant listed company shall, not later than 30 November (in this 
Regulation referred to as the “publication date”) in each year, beginning with the 
year 2026 - 
(a) 
provide to the Minister the information specified in paragraph 
(2)(a) in writing by uploading it electronically to such website as 
the Minister may specify for that purpose, 
(b) 
provide to the Minister the information specified in paragraphs 
(2)(b) and (3) in such form and manner as the Minister may


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(2)(b) and (3) in such form and manner as the Minister may 
specify, and 
6  [215] 
(c) 
publish the information referred to in paragraphs (a) and (b) in an 
appropriate and easily accessible manner on its website. 
(2) Subject to paragraph (3), the information referred to in - 
(a) 
paragraph (1)(a) is information concerning the gender 
representation on the board of a relevant listed company, which 
information shall distinguish between executive and non-


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information shall distinguish between executive and non-
executive directors of the relevant listed company, and 
(b) 
paragraph (1)(b) is information concerning the gender 
representation on the board of a relevant listed company, which 
information shall relate to the measures taken by the relevant 
listed company concerned with a view to achieving the applicable 
objectives specified in paragraphs (2) and (4)(a) of Regulation 3.


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objectives specified in paragraphs (2) and (4)(a) of Regulation 3. 
(3) Where a relevant listed company has not achieved the objectives 
specified in paragraphs (2) and (4)(a) of Regulation 3 by the dates specified in 
those paragraphs in respect of the respective sets of objectives, the information 
specified in paragraph (2) (to be provided under paragraph (1)) shall also include 
the following information: 
(a) 
the reasons why the relevant listed company did not achieve those 
objectives;


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(a) 
the reasons why the relevant listed company did not achieve those 
objectives; 
(b) 
a comprehensive description of the measures that the relevant 
listed company has already taken or intends to take in order to 
achieve those objectives. 
(4) A relevant listed company shall, where applicable - 
(a) 
include the information specified in paragraphs (2) and (3) in the 
subsequent corporate governance statement following the 
publication date, and 
(b)


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subsequent corporate governance statement following the 
publication date, and 
(b) 
submit, in such form and manner as the Minister may specify, a 
copy of that corporate governance statement to the Minister as 
soon as practicable thereafter. 
 
Penalties 
7. (1) The Minister may, each relevant year, beginning with the relevant year 
beginning on 1 December 2027, (in this Regulation referred to as the 
“publication year”) publish on a website maintained by or on behalf of the 
Minister -


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string_value:
“publication year”) publish on a website maintained by or on behalf of the 
Minister - 
(a) 
the name of each relevant listed company that contravened - 
(i) 
paragraph (5) of Regulation 3, and 
(ii) 
any of the following before 1 December 2026 or in a 
particular relevant year thereafter that precedes the 
publication year concerned: 
(I) paragraph (2) of Regulation 4; 
(II) paragraph (3) of Regulation 5; 
[215]  7 
(III) subparagraph (a) or (b) of paragraph (1) or


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(II) paragraph (3) of Regulation 5; 
[215]  7 
(III) subparagraph (a) or (b) of paragraph (1) or 
subparagraph (b) of paragraph (4) of Regulation 6, 
and 
(b) 
a statement stating the provision that was contravened. 
(2) Where - 
(a) 
an applicable listed company does not provide to the Minister the 
document specified in clause (ii) of subparagraph (a) of paragraph 
(4) of Regulation 4 by the date specified in the said paragraph for 
such provision in a particular period, or 
(b)


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such provision in a particular period, or 
(b) 
where the Minister is not satisfied with the completeness of the 
document provided, 
the Minister may, beginning with the publication year beginning on 1 December 
2027 and in each relevant year thereafter, publish on a website maintained by or 
on behalf of the   Minister - 
(i) 
the name of the applicable listed company concerned - 
(I) that did not provide the document by the dated 
specified, being a date before 1 December 2026 or a


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string_value:
specified, being a date before 1 December 2026 or a 
date in a particular relevant year thereafter that 
precedes the publication year concerned, or 
(II) with whose document the Minister is not satisfied, 
and 
(ii) 
a statement that - 
(I) the applicable listed company concerned did provide 
the document specified by the date specified, or 
(II) the Minister is not satisfied with the completeness of 
the document so provided.


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(II) the Minister is not satisfied with the completeness of 
the document so provided. 
 
Bodies for promotion of gender balance in relevant listed companies 
8. (1) The Irish Human Rights and Equality Commission shall be the body 
responsible in the State for the promotion of gender balance on the boards of 
relevant listed companies for the purposes of Article 10 of the Directive. 
(2) The Minister shall be responsible in the State for the monitoring and


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(2) The Minister shall be responsible in the State for the monitoring and 
analysis of gender balance on the boards of relevant listed companies for the 
purposes of Article 10 of the Directive. 
 
 
8  [215] 
SCHEDULE 
Regulation 3 
TARGET NUMBERS OF NON-EXECUTIVE DIRECTORS OF THE 
UNDERREPRESENTED SEX 
Number of positions on the 
board 
Minimum number of non-executive directors of the 
underrepresented sex necessary to meet the objective 
of 40 % 
1 
- 
2 
- 
3 
1 (33.3%) 
4 
1 (25%) 
5


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of 40 % 
1 
- 
2 
- 
3 
1 (33.3%) 
4 
1 (25%) 
5 
2 (40%) 
6 
2 (33.3%) 
7 
3 (42.9%) 
8 
3 (37.5%) 
9 
4 (44.4%) 
10 
4 (40%) 
11 
4 (36.4%) 
12 
5 (41.7%) 
13 
5 (38.4%) 
14 
6 (42.9%) 
15 
6 (40%) 
16 
6 (37.5%) 
17 
7 (41.2%) 
18 
7 (38.9%) 
19 
8 (42.1%) 
20 
8 (40%) 
21 
8 (38.1%) 
22 
9 (40.1%) 
23 
9 (39.1%) 
24 
10 (41.7%) 
25 
10 (40%) 
26 
10 (38.5%) 
27 
11 (40.7%) 
28 
11 (39.3%) 
29 
12 (41.4%) 
30 
12 (40%) 
 
 
 
[215]  9 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
GIVEN under my Official Seal,


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29 
12 (41.4%) 
30 
12 (40%) 
 
 
 
[215]  9 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
GIVEN under my Official Seal, 
28 May, 2025. 
 
NORMA FOLEY, 
Minister for Children, Equality and Disability. 
 
 
 
 
 
10  [215] 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
BAILE ÁTHA CLIATH 
ARNA FHOILSIÚ AG OIFIG AN tSOLÁTHAIR 
Le ceannach díreach ó 
FOILSEACHÁIN RIALTAIS, 
BÓTHAR BHAILE UÍ BHEOLÁIN, 
CILL MHAIGHNEANN, 
BAILE ÁTHA CLIATH 8, 
D08 XAO6  
 
Teil: 046 942 3100 
r-phost: publications@opw.ie 
—————— 
 
 
DUBLIN


key: chroma:document
string_value:
D08 XAO6  
 
Teil: 046 942 3100 
r-phost: publications@opw.ie 
—————— 
 
 
DUBLIN 
PUBLISHED BY THE STATIONERY OFFICE 
To be purchased from 
GOVERNMENT PUBLICATIONS, 
MOUNTSHANNON ROAD, 
KILMAINHAM, DUBLIN 8, 
D08 XAO6 
 
Tel: 046 942 3100 
E-mail: publications@opw.ie 
—————— 
 
 
€ 3.00   
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
(EGPD-21) 30. 5/25. Propylon.


key: chroma:document
string_value:
STATUTORY INSTRUMENTS. 
 
 
 
 
S.I. No. 195 of 2025 
 
 
 
 
________________ 
 
 
 
 
STATISTICS (WASTE GENERATION AND TREATMENT SURVEY) 
ORDER 2025 
 
 
 
2  [195] 
S.I. No. 195 of 2025 
 
STATISTICS (WASTE GENERATION AND TREATMENT SURVEY) 
ORDER 2025 
 
I, MICHEÁL MARTIN, Taoiseach, in exercise of the powers conferred on me 
by section 25(1) of the Statistics Act 1993 (No. 21 of 1993) and, other than in


key: chroma:document
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by section 25(1) of the Statistics Act 1993 (No. 21 of 1993) and, other than in 
relation to paragraphs 2 and 3 of the Schedule to the following order, for the 
purpose of giving full effect to Regulation (EC) No. 2150/2002 of the European 
Parliament and of the Council of 25 November 20221, as amended by 
Commission Regulation (EC) No 574/2004 of 23 February 20042, Commission 
Regulation (EC) No 783/2005 of 24 May 20053, Regulation (EC) No 1893/2006


key: chroma:document
string_value:
Regulation (EC) No 783/2005 of 24 May 20053, Regulation (EC) No 1893/2006 
of the European Parliament and of the Council of 20 December 20064, 
Regulation (EC) No. 221/2009 of the European Parliament and of the Council 
of 11 March 20095, Commission Regulation (EU) No. 849/2010 of 27 
September 20106 and Commission Regulation (EU) 2025/447 of 7 March 20257, 
hereby order as follows: 
 
1. 
This Order may be cited as the Statistics (Waste Generation and 
Treatment Survey) Order 2025.


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This Order may be cited as the Statistics (Waste Generation and 
Treatment Survey) Order 2025. 
 
2. (1) In this Order – 
“Regulation” means Regulation (EC) No. 2150/2002 of the European Parliament 
and of the Council of 25 November 20221, as amended by Commission 
Regulation (EC) No 574/2004 of 23 February 20042, Commission Regulation 
(EC) No 783/2005 of 24 May 20053, Regulation (EC) No 1893/2006 of the 
European Parliament and of the Council of 20 December 20064, Regulation (EC)


key: chroma:document
string_value:
European Parliament and of the Council of 20 December 20064, Regulation (EC) 
No. 221/2009 of the European Parliament and of the Council of 11 March 20095, 
Commission Regulation (EU) No. 849/2010 of 27 September 20106 and 
Commission Regulation (EU) No. 2025/447 of 7 March 20257; 
“Regulation (EC) No. 1893/2006” means Regulation (EC) No. 1893/2006 of the 
European Parliament and of the Council of 20 December 20064, as amended by


key: chroma:document
string_value:
European Parliament and of the Council of 20 December 20064, as amended by 
Regulation (EC) No. 295/2008 of the European Parliament and of the Council 
of 11 March 20088, Regulation (EU) No. 70/2012 of the European Parliament 
and of the Council of 18 January 20129, Regulation (EU) 2019/1243 of the 
 
1 OJ L 332 9.12.2002, p. 1 
2 OJ L 90, 27.3.2004, p. 15 
3 OJ L 131, 25.5.2005, p. 38 
4 OJ No. L 393, 30.12.2006, p. 1 
5 OJ No. L 87, 31.3.2009, p. 157 
6 OJ No. L 253, 28.9.2010, p. 2


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5 OJ No. L 87, 31.3.2009, p. 157 
6 OJ No. L 253, 28.9.2010, p. 2 
7 OJ No. L, 2025/447, 10.3.2025 
8 OJ No. L 97, 9.4.2008, p. 13 
9 OJ No. L 32, 3.2.2012, p. 1 
Notice of the making of this Statutory Instrument was published in 
"Iris Oifigiúil" of 23rd May, 2025. 
[195]  3 
European Parliament and of the Council of 20 June 201910 and Commission 
Delegated Regulation (EU) 2023/137 of 10 October 202211; 
“survey” means the Waste Generation and Treatment Survey that is conducted


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string_value:
“survey” means the Waste Generation and Treatment Survey that is conducted 
by the Central Statistics Office for the purpose of obtaining information specified 
in the Schedule, including for the purposes of compliance with the Regulation; 
“waste code” means, in relation to a particular type of waste, the waste code 
assigned to that type of waste in the list of waste set out in the Annex to 
Commission Decision 2000/532/EC of 3 May 200012, as amended by


key: chroma:document
string_value:
Commission Decision 2000/532/EC of 3 May 200012, as amended by 
Commission Decision 2001/118/EC of 16 January 200113, Commission 
Decision 2001/119/EC of 22 January 200114, Council Decision 2001/573/EC of 
23 July 200115 and Commission Decision 2014/955/EU of 18 December 201416. 
(2) A word or expression that is used in this Order and is also used in the 
Regulation has the same meaning in this Order as in the Regulation, except 
where the context otherwise requires. 
 
3.


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where the context otherwise requires. 
 
3. 
This Order applies to an undertaking that is classified for statistical 
purposes under any section of NACE Rev. 2.1 set out in Annex I to Regulation 
(EC) No. 1893/2006. 
 
4. 
A requirement on undertakings to which this Order applies to provide, 
once only and for the purposes of the survey, information the general nature of 
which is specified in the Schedule, in relation to the year 2024, is hereby 
prescribed.


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which is specified in the Schedule, in relation to the year 2024, is hereby 
prescribed. 
 
 
 
10 OJ No. L. 198, 25.7.2019, p. 241 
11 OJ No. L. 19, 20.1.2023, p. 5 
12 OJ No. L 226, 6.9.2000, p. 3 
13 OJ No. L 47, 16.2.2001, p. 1 
14 OJ No. L 47, 16.2.2001, p. 32 
15 OJ No. L 203, 28.7.2001, p.18 
16 OJ No. L 370, 30.12.2014, p. 44 
4  [195] 
SCHEDULE 
Article 4 
1. 
Information regarding the following, as it relates to each type of waste 
generated by the undertaking concerned: 
(a)


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generated by the undertaking concerned: 
(a) 
waste code of the waste; 
(b) 
description of the waste; 
(c) 
quantity of the waste; 
(d) 
location where the waste was treated; 
(e) 
where the waste was treated in the State on premises of the 
undertaking concerned - 
(i) 
the method of treatment of the waste where the method 
involved recycling, or 
(ii) 
the method of treatment of the waste where the method did 
not involve recycling. 
 
2.


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(ii) 
the method of treatment of the waste where the method did 
not involve recycling. 
 
2. 
The eircode of the registered office, principal office or place of business 
of the undertaking concerned. 
 
3. 
Information on the time taken by the undertaking to complete the 
questionnaire, form or other record prepared by the Director General for the 
collection of the information referred to in paragraphs 1 and 2. 
 
 
 
 
GIVEN under my Official Seal, 
14 May, 2025. 
 
MICHEÁL MARTIN,


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string_value:
GIVEN under my Official Seal, 
14 May, 2025. 
 
MICHEÁL MARTIN, 
Taoiseach. 
 
 
 
 
 
[195]  5 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
BAILE ÁTHA CLIATH 
ARNA FHOILSIÚ AG OIFIG AN tSOLÁTHAIR 
Le ceannach díreach ó 
FOILSEACHÁIN RIALTAIS, 
BÓTHAR BHAILE UÍ BHEOLÁIN, 
CILL MHAIGHNEANN, 
BAILE ÁTHA CLIATH 8, 
D08 XAO6  
 
Teil: 046 942 3100 
r-phost: publications@opw.ie 
—————— 
 
 
DUBLIN 
PUBLISHED BY THE STATIONERY OFFICE 
To be purchased from 
GOVERNMENT PUBLICATIONS, 
MOUNTSHANNON ROAD,


key: chroma:document
string_value:
To be purchased from 
GOVERNMENT PUBLICATIONS, 
MOUNTSHANNON ROAD, 
KILMAINHAM, DUBLIN 8, 
D08 XAO6 
 
Tel: 046 942 3100 
E-mail: publications@opw.ie 
—————— 
 
 
€ 3.00   
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
(EPDDT-66) 30. 5/25. Propylon.


key: chroma:document
string_value:
STATUTORY INSTRUMENTS. 
 
 
 
 
S.I. No. 27 of 2025 
 
 
 
 
________________ 
 
 
 
 
EUROPEAN UNION (ROAD TRANSPORT ACTIVITIES CHECKS) 
REGULATIONS 2025 
 
 
 
2  [27] 
 
S.I. No. 27 of 2025 
 
EUROPEAN UNION (ROAD TRANSPORT ACTIVITIES CHECKS) 
REGULATIONS 2025 
 
I, DARRAGH O'BRIEN, Minister for Transport, in exercise of the powers 
conferred on me by section 3 of the European Communities Act 1972 (No. 27 of


key: chroma:document
string_value:
conferred on me by section 3 of the European Communities Act 1972 (No. 27 of 
1972) and for the purpose of giving further effect to Directive 2006/22/EC of the 
European Parliament and of the Council of 15 March 20061, as amended by 
Commission Delegated Directive (EU) 2024/846 of 14 March 20242, and giving 
full effect to Article 465 of the Trade and Cooperation Agreement between the 
European Union and the European Atomic Energy Community, of the one part,


key: chroma:document
string_value:
European Union and the European Atomic Energy Community, of the one part, 
and the United Kingdom of Great Britain and Northern Ireland, of the other part, 
which entered into force on 1 May 20213 approved, on behalf of the European 
Union, by Council Decision (EU) 2021/689 of 29 April 20214, hereby make the 
following regulations: 
 
1. 
These Regulations may be cited as the European Union (Road Transport 
Activities Checks) Regulations 2025. 
 
2. (1) In these Regulations—


key: chroma:document
string_value:
Activities Checks) Regulations 2025. 
 
2. (1) In these Regulations— 
“Annex” means Annex 31 Transport of Goods By Road of the Trade and 
Cooperation Agreement; 
“Directive” means Directive 2006/22/EC of the European Parliament and of the 
Council of 15 March 20061 as amended by Commission Directive 2009/4/EC of 
23 January 20095, Commission Directive 2009/5/EC of 30 January 20096, 
Commission Regulation (EU) 2016/403 of 18 March 20167 and Directive (EU)


key: chroma:document
string_value:
Commission Regulation (EU) 2016/403 of 18 March 20167 and Directive (EU) 
2020/1057 of the European Parliament and of the Council of 15 July 20208 and 
Commission Delegated Directive (EU) 2024/846 of 14 March 20242; 
“enforcement officer” means— 
(a) 
a transport officer appointed under section 15 of the Road 
Transport Act 1986 (No. 16 of 1986), 
(b) 
an officer of the Revenue Commissioners, or 
(c) 
a member of the Garda Síochána;


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string_value:
(b) 
an officer of the Revenue Commissioners, or 
(c) 
a member of the Garda Síochána; 
“Trade and Cooperation Agreement” means the Trade and Cooperation 
Agreement between the European Union and the European Atomic Energy 
Community of the one part, and the United Kingdom of Great Britain and 
 
1 OJ No. L 102, 11.4.2006, p. 35 
2 OJ No. L 846, 31.5.2024, p. 1 
3 OJ No. L 149, 30.4.2021, p. 10 
4 OJ No. L 149, 30.4.2021, p. 2 
5 OJ No. L 21, 24.1.2009, p. 39 
6 OJ No. L 29, 31.1.2009, p. 45


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4 OJ No. L 149, 30.4.2021, p. 2 
5 OJ No. L 21, 24.1.2009, p. 39 
6 OJ No. L 29, 31.1.2009, p. 45 
7 OJ No. L 74, 19.3.2016, p. 8 
8 OJ No. L 249, 31.7.2020, P. 49 
Notice of the making of this Statutory Instrument was published in 
"Iris Oifigiúil" of 14th February, 2025. 
[27]  3 
 
Northern Ireland, of the other part, which entered into force on 1 May 20213, 
approved, on behalf of the European Union, by Council Decision (EU) 2021/689 
of 29 April 20214.


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string_value:
approved, on behalf of the European Union, by Council Decision (EU) 2021/689 
of 29 April 20214. 
(2) A word or expression which is used in these Regulations and is also used 
in the Directive has, unless the context otherwise requires, the same meaning in 
these Regulations as it has in that Directive. 
(3) A word or expression which is used in these Regulations and is also used 
in the Trade and Cooperation Agreement and Article 12 of Section 4 of Part B


key: chroma:document
string_value:
in the Trade and Cooperation Agreement and Article 12 of Section 4 of Part B 
of the Annex has, unless the context otherwise requires, the same meaning in 
these Regulations as it has in that Agreement or that Part of the Annex. 
 
3. 
The Road Safety Authority— 
(a) 
shall organise— 
(i) 
a system of appropriate and regular checks on correct and 
consistent implementation of the provisions referred to in 
paragraph 2 of Article 2   of the Directive and paragraph (1)


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paragraph 2 of Article 2   of the Directive and paragraph (1) 
of Article 12(1) of Section 4 of Part B of the Annex, both at 
the roadside and at the premises of transport undertakings, 
covering each year a large and representative cross-section 
of mobile workers, drivers, undertakings and vehicles of all 
transport categories referred to in Article 2(1) of the 
Directive and Article 12(1) of Section 4 of Part B of the 
Annex,  
(ii) 
roadside checks in accordance with Article 4 of the


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Annex,  
(ii) 
roadside checks in accordance with Article 4 of the 
Directive and Article 12(1) of Section 4 of Part B of the 
Annex, including in various places and at any time, which 
shall cover a sufficiently extensive part of the road network 
to make it difficult to avoid road checkpoints,  
(iii) concerted roadside checks in accordance with Article 5 of 
the Directive, and 
(iv) checks at the premises of undertakings in accordance with


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the Directive, and 
(iv) checks at the premises of undertakings in accordance with 
Article 6 of the Directive and Article 12(1) of Section 4 of 
Part B of the Annex, 
(b) 
is the competent authority in the State to keep and record data for 
the purposes of Article 3 of the Directive, 
(c) 
is designated as the body which has the tasks referred to in 
Articles 7 (intracommunity liaison) and 8 (exchange of 
information) of the Directive, 
(d)


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Articles 7 (intracommunity liaison) and 8 (exchange of 
information) of the Directive, 
(d) 
is the competent authority for Article 12(1), (2), (3) and (6) of 
Section 4 of Part B of the Annex, 
(e) 
shall introduce a national risk rating system for undertakings in 
accordance with— 
4  [27] 
 
(i) 
Article 9 of the Directive, including to make the data 
contained in the national risk rating system accessible to 
enforcement officers, and  
(ii)


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contained in the national risk rating system accessible to 
enforcement officers, and  
(ii) 
Article 12(4) of Section 4 of Part B of the Annex,  
and 
(f) 
in order to facilitate targeted roadside checks by competent 
control authorities of other Member States in accordance with 
Article 9(4), shall make the data contained on the risk rating 
system referred to in (e) accessible to the Minister for Transport.   
 
4. 
Roadside checks shall be carried out in consultation with the Garda


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4. 
Roadside checks shall be carried out in consultation with the Garda 
Síochána. 
 
5. (1) An enforcement officer may board a vehicle for the purposes of a 
roadside check, or enter the premises of a transport undertaking for the purpose 
of carrying out a premises check, under Regulation 3(a). 
(2) An enforcement officer may in carrying out a check under Regulation 
3(a) — 
(a) 
make such examination and inquiry as may be necessary, 
(b)


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3(a) — 
(a) 
make such examination and inquiry as may be necessary, 
(b) 
require the production of any record (and, in the case of 
information in non-legible form to produce it in legible form) 
which in the opinion of the enforcement officer is necessary for 
him or her to inspect, examine or require a copy of it or of any 
entry in it to be provided to him or her, 
(c) 
inspect and take copies of or extracts from any such records


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(c) 
inspect and take copies of or extracts from any such records 
(including, in the case of information in non-legible form, a copy 
of or extract from the information in permanent legible form), 
(d) 
remove and retain the records for such period as may be 
reasonable for further examination or where it may be relevant in 
respect of proceedings, 
(e) 
require any person whom he or she has reasonable cause to 
believe to be able to give information relevant for the purposes of


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believe to be able to give information relevant for the purposes of 
these Regulations to answer such questions with respect to 
matters to which the check relates as the officer thinks fit to ask, 
(f) 
require the production of any recording equipment, 
(g) 
direct that any recording equipment is left undisturbed for so long 
as is reasonably necessary for the purposes of the check, 
(h) 
in relation to any recording equipment found in any vehicle or at


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(h) 
in relation to any recording equipment found in any vehicle or at 
any premises, take possession of it and detain it for so long as is 
necessary to— 
(i) 
examine or arrange for the examination of it and do to it 
anything which he or she has power to do for the purpose 
of the check, 
[27]  5 
 
(ii) 
ensure that it is not tampered with before the examination 
is completed, or 
(iii) ensure that it is available for use as evidence in any 
proceedings, 
(i)


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is completed, or 
(iii) ensure that it is available for use as evidence in any 
proceedings, 
(i) 
require any person to afford him or her such facilities and 
assistance within his or her control or responsibilities as are 
reasonably necessary to enable him or her to exercise any of the 
powers conferred on him or her under this Regulation, 
(j) 
require any person by or on whose behalf data equipment is or 
has been used or any person having charge of, or otherwise


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has been used or any person having charge of, or otherwise 
concerned with the operation of, the equipment or any associated 
apparatus or material to afford the officer all reasonable 
assistance in relation to its use, 
(k) 
detain any vehicle for so long as to complete a roadside check, 
(l) 
if an infringement is detected, check on the joint liability of other 
instigators or accessories in the transport chain, such as shippers,


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instigators or accessories in the transport chain, such as shippers, 
freight forwarders or contractors, including to enter their premises 
and exercise all or any of the powers under this Regulation. 
(3) The driver of a vehicle shall stop the vehicle on being so required by an 
enforcement officer in uniform. A driver who fails to comply with this paragraph 
commits an offence. 
(4) An enforcement officer shall not, other than with the consent of the


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commits an offence. 
(4) An enforcement officer shall not, other than with the consent of the 
occupier, enter any part of a premises of a transport operator or other person used 
as a private dwelling unless he or she has obtained a warrant under paragraph (6) 
authorising such entry. 
(5) Where an enforcement officer in exercise of his or her powers under this 
Regulation is prevented from entering any premises of a transport undertaking


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Regulation is prevented from entering any premises of a transport undertaking 
or other person, an application may be made under paragraph (6) for a warrant 
authorising such entry. 
(6) If a judge of the District Court is satisfied on the sworn information of 
an enforcement officer that there are reasonable grounds for believing that a 
premises is a transport premises or the premises of other instigators or 
accessories in the transport chain, contains information for the purposes of a


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accessories in the transport chain, contains information for the purposes of a 
premises check under Regulation 3(a), or serious infringements referred to in 
Article 6 of the Directive have been detected at the roadside relating to vehicles 
being operated by an undertaking from the premises, the judge may issue a 
warrant authorising an enforcement officer, accompanied by other enforcement 
officers, at any time or times within one month from the date of issue of the


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officers, at any time or times within one month from the date of issue of the 
warrant, to enter, if need be by reasonable force, the premises and exercise all or 
any of the powers conferred on an enforcement officer under this Regulation. 
 
6. 
A person who fails to comply with the request of an enforcement officer 
or obstructs or impedes an enforcement officer in carrying out a roadside check 
or a check at the premises of a transport undertaking or other person under these


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or a check at the premises of a transport undertaking or other person under these 
Regulations commits an offence. 
6  [27] 
 
7. (1) A transport undertaking responsible for drivers shall keep, for a period 
of one year, the documents, records of results and other relevant data passed to 
it by the Road Safety Authority or the relevant competent authority of another 
Member State concerning checks carried out on it at its premises or in its drivers 
at the roadside.


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at the roadside. 
(2) A transport undertaking which fails to comply with this Regulation 
commits an offence. 
 
8. (1) A person who commits an offence under these Regulations is liable 
on summary conviction— 
(a) 
in the case of a first offence, to a class C fine, or 
(b) 
in the case of a second or subsequent offence, to a class A fine. 
(2) Proceedings for an offence under these Regulations may be brought and 
prosecuted summarily by the Road Safety Authority.


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prosecuted summarily by the Road Safety Authority. 
(3) Where an offence under these Regulations is committed by a body 
corporate and is proven to have been committed with the consent or connivance 
of or to be attributable to any neglect on the part of a person being a director, 
manager or secretary or other officer of the body corporate or a person who was 
purporting to act in any such capacity, that person as well as the body corporate


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purporting to act in any such capacity, that person as well as the body corporate 
is guilty of an offence and is liable to be proceeded against and punished as if he 
or she were guilty of the first-mentioned offence. 
 
9. 
A transport undertaking with a high risk rating under the risk rating 
system introduced by the Road Safety Authority and as referred to in Regulation 
3(e) may make representations to the Authority regarding its rating. The


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3(e) may make representations to the Authority regarding its rating. The 
Authority shall consider the representations and notify the undertaking of its 
conclusions. 
 
10. The following are revoked: 
(a) 
the European Communities (Road Transport Activities Checks) 
Regulations 2007 (S. I. No. 545 of 2007);  
(b) 
the European Communities (Road Transport Activities Checks) 
(Amendment) Regulations 2007 (S. I. No. 116 of 2010);  
 
 
[27]  7 
 
(c)


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(Amendment) Regulations 2007 (S. I. No. 116 of 2010);  
 
 
[27]  7 
 
(c) 
the European Union (Road Transport Activities Checks) 
(Amendment) Regulations 2007 (S. I. No. 398 of 2022). 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
GIVEN under my Official Seal, 
11 February, 2025. 
 
DARRAGH O’BRIEN, 
Minister for Transport. 
 
 
 
 
 
8  [27] 
 
EXPLANATORY NOTE 
 
(This note is not part of the Instrument and does not purport to be a legal 
interpretation.)


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(This note is not part of the Instrument and does not purport to be a legal 
interpretation.) 
 
The purpose of these Regulations is to give effect to Directive 2006/22/EC of 
the European Parliament and of the Council of 15 March 2006, which sets down 
minimum enforcement activities to be implemented by Member States 
concerning social legislation relating to road transport undertakings, as amended 
by Commission Delegated Directive (EU) 2024/846 of 14 March 2024, which


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by Commission Delegated Directive (EU) 2024/846 of 14 March 2024, which 
updates the classification and categorisation of certain road transport offences 
and Article 465 of the EU-UK Trade and Cooperation Agreement. 
 
 
[27]  9 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
BAILE ÁTHA CLIATH 
ARNA FHOILSIÚ AG OIFIG AN tSOLÁTHAIR 
Le ceannach díreach ó 
FOILSEACHÁIN RIALTAIS, 
BÓTHAR BHAILE UÍ BHEOLÁIN, 
CILL MHAIGHNEANN, 
BAILE ÁTHA CLIATH 8, 
D08 XAO6  
 
Teil: 046 942 3100 
r-phost: publications@opw.ie


key: chroma:document
string_value:
BAILE ÁTHA CLIATH 8, 
D08 XAO6  
 
Teil: 046 942 3100 
r-phost: publications@opw.ie 
—————— 
 
 
DUBLIN 
PUBLISHED BY THE STATIONERY OFFICE 
To be purchased from 
GOVERNMENT PUBLICATIONS, 
MOUNTSHANNON ROAD, 
KILMAINHAM, DUBLIN 8, 
D08 XAO6 
 
Tel: 046 942 3100 
E-mail: publications@opw.ie 
—————— 
 
 
€ 3.00   
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
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key: chroma:document
string_value:
STATUTORY INSTRUMENTS. 
 
 
 
 
S.I. No. 68 of 2025 
 
 
 
 
________________ 
 
 
 
 
IMMIGRATION ACT 2004 (VISAS) (AMENDMENT) ORDER 2025 
 
 
 
2  [68] 
 
S.I. No. 68 of 2025 
 
IMMIGRATION ACT 2004 (VISAS) (AMENDMENT) ORDER 2025 
 
I, JIM O'CALLAGHAN, Minister for Justice, in exercise of the powers 
conferred on me by section 17 of the Immigration Act 2004 (No. 1 of 2004) (as 
adapted by the Justice and Equality (Alteration of Name of Department and Title


key: chroma:document
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adapted by the Justice and Equality (Alteration of Name of Department and Title 
of Minister) Order 2020 (S.I. No. 452 of 2020)), hereby order as follows: 
 
1. (1) This Order may be cited as the Immigration Act 2004 (Visas) 
(Amendment)  Order 2025. 
(2) This Order comes into operation on 10 March 2025. 
 
2. 
The Immigration Act 2004 (Visas) Order (S.I. No. 473 of 2014) is 
amended – 
(a) 
in Schedule 1, by the deletion of “Eswatini”, “Lesotho”, and 
“Nauru”. 
and 
(b)


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amended – 
(a) 
in Schedule 1, by the deletion of “Eswatini”, “Lesotho”, and 
“Nauru”. 
and 
(b) 
in Schedule 5, by the insertion of – 
(i) 
“Eswatini” after “Eritrea”,  
(ii) 
“Lesotho” after “Lebanon”, and  
(iii) “Nauru” after “Moldova”. 
 
 
 
 
 
 
GIVEN under my Official Seal, 
6 March, 2025. 
 
JIM O’CALLAGHAN, 
Minister for Justice. 
 
 
 
 
Notice of the making of this Statutory Instrument was published in 
"Iris Oifigiúil" of 11th March, 2025. 
[68]  3


key: chroma:document
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"Iris Oifigiúil" of 11th March, 2025. 
[68]  3 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
BAILE ÁTHA CLIATH 
ARNA FHOILSIÚ AG OIFIG AN tSOLÁTHAIR 
Le ceannach díreach ó 
FOILSEACHÁIN RIALTAIS, 
BÓTHAR BHAILE UÍ BHEOLÁIN, 
CILL MHAIGHNEANN, 
BAILE ÁTHA CLIATH 8, 
D08 XAO6  
 
Teil: 046 942 3100 
r-phost: publications@opw.ie 
—————— 
 
 
DUBLIN 
PUBLISHED BY THE STATIONERY OFFICE 
To be purchased from 
GOVERNMENT PUBLICATIONS, 
MOUNTSHANNON ROAD, 
KILMAINHAM, DUBLIN 8, 
D08 XAO6 
 
Tel: 046 942 3100


key: chroma:document
string_value:
GOVERNMENT PUBLICATIONS, 
MOUNTSHANNON ROAD, 
KILMAINHAM, DUBLIN 8, 
D08 XAO6 
 
Tel: 046 942 3100 
E-mail: publications@opw.ie 
—————— 
 
 
€ 1.50   
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
(CLRD-138) 30. 3/25. Propylon.


key: chroma:document
string_value:
STATUTORY INSTRUMENTS. 
 
 
 
 
S.I. No. 144 of 2025 
 
 
 
 
________________ 
 
 
 
 
TRANSPORT (DELEGATION OF MINISTERIAL FUNCTIONS)  
ORDER 2025 
 
 
 
 
2  [144] 
S.I. No. 144 of 2025 
 
TRANSPORT (DELEGATION OF MINISTERIAL FUNCTIONS)  
ORDER 2025 
 
The Government, on the request of the Minister for Transport and in exercise of 
the powers conferred on them by section 2(1) of the Ministers and Secretaries 
(Amendment) (No. 2) Act 1977 (No. 28 of 1977), hereby order as follows:


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(Amendment) (No. 2) Act 1977 (No. 28 of 1977), hereby order as follows: 
 
1. 
This Order may be cited as the Transport (Delegation of Ministerial 
Functions) Order 2025. 
 
2. 
The powers (other than the power to prosecute an offence) and duties of 
the Minister for Transport conferred on him – 
(a) 
by or under the enactments specified in Part 1 of the Schedule, 
(b) 
by or under the provisions of the enactments specified in Part 2 
of the Schedule, and 
(c)


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(b) 
by or under the provisions of the enactments specified in Part 2 
of the Schedule, and 
(c) 
under the Regulations specified in Part 3 of the Schedule, 
are delegated to Seán Canney, Minister of State at the Department of Transport. 
 
 
Notice of the making of this Statutory Instrument was published in 
"Iris Oifigiúil" of 11th April, 2025. 
[144]  3 
SCHEDULE 
Part 1 
 
Merchant Shipping Acts 1894 to 2022 
Road Transport Act 1933 (No. 8 of 1933) 
Road Transport Act 1934 (No. 17 of 1934)


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Road Transport Act 1933 (No. 8 of 1933) 
Road Transport Act 1934 (No. 17 of 1934) 
Road Transport Act 1935 (No. 23 of 1935) 
Mercantile Marine Acts 1955 and 2006 
Road Traffic Acts 1961 to 2024 
Road Transport Act 1971 (No. 8 of 1971) 
Local Authorities (Traffic Wardens) Act 1975 (No. 14 of 1975) 
Road Transport Act 1978 (No. 8 of 1978) 
Free Ports Act 1986 (No. 6 of 1986) 
Road Transport Act 1986 (No. 16 of 1986) 
Shipping Investment Grants Act 1987 (No. 21 of 1987)


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string_value:
Road Transport Act 1986 (No. 16 of 1986) 
Shipping Investment Grants Act 1987 (No. 21 of 1987) 
Dublin Transport Authority (Dissolution) Act 1987 (No. 34 of 1987) 
Oil Pollution of the Sea (Civil Liability and Compensation) Acts 1988 and 2003 
Sea Pollution Acts 1991 to 2014 
Harbours Acts 1996 to 2015 
Road Transport Act 1999 (No. 15 of 1999) 
Sea Pollution (Hazardous Substances) (Compensation) Act 2005 (No. 9 of 2005) 
Road Safety Authority Act 2006 (No. 14 of 2006)


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string_value:
Road Safety Authority Act 2006 (No. 14 of 2006) 
Road Traffic and Transport Act 2006 (No. 28 of 2006) 
Road Transport Act 2011 (No. 31 of 2011) 
Road Safety Authority (Commercial Vehicle Roadworthiness) Act 2012 (No. 16 
of 2012) 
Vehicle Clamping Act 2015 (No. 13 of 2015) 
Vehicle Registration Data (Automated Searching and Exchange) Act 2018 (No. 
5 of 2018) 
 
Part 2 
 
Sections 12 and 19(3) of the Roads Act 1920 (No. 72 of 1920) 
Section 13 of the Finance Act 1920 (No. 18 of 1920)


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string_value:
Section 13 of the Finance Act 1920 (No. 18 of 1920) 
Section 22 of the Finance Act 1921 (No. 32 of 1921) 
Section 1 of the Finance (Excise Duties) Act 1952 (No. 24 of 1952) 
4  [144] 
Section 12(1) of the Consular Conventions Act 1954 (No. 10 of 1954) 
Section 4 of the Finance (Excise Duties) (Vehicles) (Amendment) Act 1960 (No. 
1 of 1960) 
Sections 65, 66 and 67 of the Finance Act 1976 (No. 16 of 1976) 
Section 4A of the Marine Institute Act 1991 (No. 2 of 1991)


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string_value:
Section 4A of the Marine Institute Act 1991 (No. 2 of 1991) 
Chapter II of Part II of the Finance (No. 2) Act 1992 (No. 28 of 1992) 
Chapter II of Part II of the Finance Act 1993 (No. 13 of 1993) 
Section 2(7A) and (8A) of the Local Government Act 1998 (No. 16 of 1998) 
Section 35(1)(a) and (b) of the Disability Act 2005 (No. 14 of 2005) and, in so 
far as it relates to maritime transport, safety and security, paragraph (c) of that 
subsection. 
 
Part 3


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subsection. 
 
Part 3 
 
Road Vehicles (Registration and Licensing) Order 1958 (S.I. No. 15 of 1958) 
Road Vehicles (Registration and Licensing) (Amendment) Regulations 1992 
(S.I. No. 385 of 1992) 
European Communities (Speed Limitation Devices) Regulations 1993 (S.I. No. 
300 of 1993) 
European Communities (Proof of Compliance) Regulations 2000 (S.I. No. 223 
of 2000) 
European Communities (Safety of Fishing Vessels) Regulations 2002 (S.I. No. 
417 of 2002)


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string_value:
European Communities (Safety of Fishing Vessels) Regulations 2002 (S.I. No. 
417 of 2002) 
European Communities (Driving Theoretical Tests) Regulations 2003 (S.I. No. 
52 of 2003) 
European Communities (Safe Loading and Unloading of Bulk Carriers) 
Regulations 2003 (S.I. No. 347 of 2003) 
European Communities (Merchant Shipping) (Organisation of Working Time) 
Regulations 2003 (S.I. No. 532 of 2003) 
European Communities (Ship and Port Facilities) Regulations 2004 (S.I. No. 413 
of 2004)


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string_value:
European Communities (Ship and Port Facilities) Regulations 2004 (S.I. No. 413 
of 2004) 
Road Traffic (Licensing of Drivers) Regulations 2006 (S.I. No. 537 of 2006) 
European Communities (Port Security) Regulations 2007 (S.I. No. 284 of 2007) 
European Communities (Maritime) (International Safety Management Code) 
Regulations 2008 (S.I. No. 60 of 2008) 
European Communities (Vessel Traffic Monitoring and Information System) 
Regulations 2010 (S.I. No. 573 of 2010)


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string_value:
Regulations 2010 (S.I. No. 573 of 2010) 
European Communities (Port State Control) Regulations 2010 (S.I. No. 656 of 
2010) 
[144]  5 
European Communities (Merchant Shipping) (Compliance with Flag State 
Requirements) Regulations 2011 (S.I. No. 260 of 2011) 
European Communities (Ship Inspection and Survey Organisations) Regulations 
2011 (S.I. No. 275 of 2011) 
European Union (International Road Haulage Market) Regulations 2011 (S.I. 
No. 698 of 2011)


key: chroma:document
string_value:
European Union (International Road Haulage Market) Regulations 2011 (S.I. 
No. 698 of 2011) 
European Union (Liability of Carriers of Passengers by Sea) Regulations 2012 
(S.I. No. 552 of 2012) 
European Union (International Market for Coach and Bus Services) Regulations 
2013 (S.I.  No. 506 of 2013) 
European Union (Training, Certification and Watchkeeping for Seafarers) 
Regulations 2014 (S.I. No. 242 of 2014) 
European Union (Sulphur Content of Marine Fuels) Regulations 2015 (S.I. No.


key: chroma:document
string_value:
European Union (Sulphur Content of Marine Fuels) Regulations 2015 (S.I. No. 
361 of 2015) 
European Union (Recreational Craft and Personal Watercraft) Regulations 2017 
(S.I. No. 65 of 2017) 
European Union (Marine Equipment) Regulations 2017 (S.I. No. 177 of 2017) 
European Union (Facilitation of Cross-Border Exchange of Information on 
Road-Safety-Related Traffic Offences) Regulations 2017 (S.I. No. 371 of 2017) 
European Union (Occupation of Road Transport Operator) Regulations 2018


key: chroma:document
string_value:
European Union (Occupation of Road Transport Operator) Regulations 2018 
(S.I. No. 265 of 2018) 
Road Transport (Operator’s Licence Application) Regulations 2018 (S.I. No. 
398 of 2018) 
European Union (Ship Recycling) Regulations 2018 (S.I. No. 555 of 2018) 
European Union (Passenger Ships) Regulations 2019 (S.I. No. 676 of 2019) 
European Union (Registration of Persons Sailing on Board Passenger Ships) 
Regulations 2019 (S.I. No. 677 of 2019)


key: chroma:document
string_value:
Regulations 2019 (S.I. No. 677 of 2019) 
European Union (System of Inspections for the Safe Operation of Ro-Ro 
Passenger Ships and High-Speed Passenger Craft in Regular Service) 
Regulations 2019 (S.I. No. 679 of 2019) 
European Union (International Labour Organisation Work in Fishing 
Convention) (Medical Examination) Regulations 2020 (S.I. No. 266 of 2020) 
European Union (International Labour Organisation Work in Fishing


key: chroma:document
string_value:
European Union (International Labour Organisation Work in Fishing 
Convention) (Fishing Vessel Owner Liability and Repatriation) Regulations 
2020 (S.I. No. 332 of 2020) 
European Union (Workers on Board Seagoing Fishing Vessels) (Organisation of 
Working Time) (No. 2) Regulations 2020 (S.I. No. 441 of 2020) 
European Union (Workers on Board Seagoing Fishing Vessels) (Organisation of 
Working Time) (Share Fisherman) Regulations 2020 (S.I. No. 585 of 2020)


key: chroma:document
string_value:
Working Time) (Share Fisherman) Regulations 2020 (S.I. No. 585 of 2020) 
Regulations 3(1) and 13 of the European Union (Interbus Agreement) 
Regulations 2020 (S.I. No. 694 of 2020) insofar as they relate to paragraphs 1 
6  [144] 
and 3 of Article 22 and Article 19 (insofar as Article 19 relates to paragraphs 1 
and 3 of Article 22) of the Agreement on the international occasional carriage of 
passengers by coach and bus (Interbus Agreement)


key: chroma:document
string_value:
passengers by coach and bus (Interbus Agreement) 
European Union (Minimum Safety and Health Requirements for Improved 
Medical Treatment on Board Vessels) Regulations 2021 (S.I. No. 591 of 2021) 
European Union (Port Reception Facilities for the Delivery of Waste From 
Ships) Regulations 2022 (S.I. No. 351 of 2022) 
European Union (Organisation of Working Time in Inland Waterway Transport) 
Regulations 2022 (S.I. No. 392 of 2022)


key: chroma:document
string_value:
Regulations 2022 (S.I. No. 392 of 2022) 
European Union (Hired Vehicles Without Drivers for the Carriage of Goods by 
Road) Regulations 2023 (S.I. No. 566 of 2023) 
European Union (International Labour Organisation Work in Fishing 
Convention) (Safe Manning) Regulations 2024 (S.I. No. 52 of 2024) 
 
 
 
 
GIVEN under the Official Seal of the Government, 
8 April, 2025. 
 
MICHEÁL MARTIN, 
Taoiseach. 
 
 
 
[144]  7 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
BAILE ÁTHA CLIATH


key: chroma:document
string_value:
MICHEÁL MARTIN, 
Taoiseach. 
 
 
 
[144]  7 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
BAILE ÁTHA CLIATH 
ARNA FHOILSIÚ AG OIFIG AN tSOLÁTHAIR 
Le ceannach díreach ó 
FOILSEACHÁIN RIALTAIS, 
BÓTHAR BHAILE UÍ BHEOLÁIN, 
CILL MHAIGHNEANN, 
BAILE ÁTHA CLIATH 8, 
D08 XAO6  
 
Teil: 046 942 3100 
r-phost: publications@opw.ie 
—————— 
 
 
DUBLIN 
PUBLISHED BY THE STATIONERY OFFICE 
To be purchased from 
GOVERNMENT PUBLICATIONS, 
MOUNTSHANNON ROAD, 
KILMAINHAM, DUBLIN 8, 
D08 XAO6 
 
Tel: 046 942 3100


key: chroma:document
string_value:
GOVERNMENT PUBLICATIONS, 
MOUNTSHANNON ROAD, 
KILMAINHAM, DUBLIN 8, 
D08 XAO6 
 
Tel: 046 942 3100 
E-mail: publications@opw.ie 
—————— 
 
 
€ 3.00   
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
(CPCRD-6) 30. 4/25. Propylon.


key: chroma:document
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STATUTORY INSTRUMENTS. 
 
 
 
 
S.I. No. 218 of 2025 
 
 
 
 
________________ 
 
 
 
 
DISTRICT COURT (DIGITAL) RULES 2025 
 
 
 
 
 
2  [218] 
S.I. No. 218 of 2025 
 
DISTRICT COURT (DIGITAL) RULES 2025 
 
The District Court Rules Committee, in exercise of the powers conferred on them 
by section 91 of the Courts of Justice Act 1924, section 72 of the Courts of 
Justice Act 1936, section 34 of the Courts (Supplemental Provisions) Act 1961,


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string_value:
Justice Act 1936, section 34 of the Courts (Supplemental Provisions) Act 1961, 
and sections 20 and 21 of the Civil Law and Criminal Law (Miscellaneous 
Provisions) Act 2020, with the concurrence of the Minister for Justice, make the 
following rules of court. 
 
Dated this 3rd day of December 2024. 
 
Paul Kelly  (Chairperson) 
Alan Mitchell 
Joyce Good Hammond 
Ciara McMahon 
James Finn 
Eoin Manning 
 
 
I concur in the making of the following rules of court.


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James Finn 
Eoin Manning 
 
 
I concur in the making of the following rules of court. 
 
Dated this 28th day of May 2025. 
 
Jim O’Callaghan 
Minister for Justice  
 
 
Notice of the making of this Statutory Instrument was published in 
"Iris Oifigiúil" of 30th May, 2025. 
[218]  3 
S.I. No. 218 of 2025 
 
DISTRICT COURT (DIGITAL) RULES 2025 
 
1. (1) These Rules, which shall come into operation on the 18th day of June 
2025, may be cited as the District Court (Digital) Rules 2025.


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2025, may be cited as the District Court (Digital) Rules 2025. 
(2) These Rules shall be construed together with the District Court Rules 
1997 (S.I. No. 93 of 1997) and all other District Court Rules. 
(3) The District Court Rules as amended by these Rules may be cited as the 
District Court Rules 1997 to 2025. 
2. 
The District Court Rules 1997 (S.I. No. 93 of 1997) are amended: 
(i) 
by the insertion immediately following sub-rule (4) of rule 
9 of Order 12 of the following sub-rule: 
“(5)


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9 of Order 12 of the following sub-rule: 
“(5) 
Acceptance of valid completion of all required 
fields in any document for the time being authorised for 
digital delivery shall be deemed to satisfy the requirements 
of any prescribed form for the document concerned, unless 
the Court otherwise directs.”; 
(ii) 
by the insertion immediately following Order 39 of the 
Order set out in Schedule 1; 
(iii) by the insertion in Order 41, immediately following rule 4, 
of the following rule:


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(iii) by the insertion in Order 41, immediately following rule 4, 
of the following rule: 
“4A. Notwithstanding the other provisions of this Order, 
where service of a document which has been issued in 
accordance with Order 39A is effected by digital delivery 
on a respondent, or the solicitor for a respondent, who is a 
digital user (within the meaning of Order 39A) who has 
consented to digital delivery of the document, no further 
service of the document on that respondent is required.”;


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string_value:
service of the document on that respondent is required.”; 
(iv) by the insertion in Order 42, immediately following sub-
rule (1) of rule 1, of the following sub-rule: 
“(1A) A digital user (within the meaning of Order 39A) 
may file and/or serve an appearance and defence by digital 
delivery, where same is for the time being authorised in 
accordance with Order 39A and, in the case of service, 
where the claimant or claimant's solicitor is or becomes a 
digital user.”; 
(v)


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where the claimant or claimant's solicitor is or becomes a 
digital user.”; 
(v) 
by the insertion in Order 42A, immediately following rule 
1, of the following rule: 
“1A. Notwithstanding rule 4, a digital user (within the 
meaning of Order 39A) may file and/or serve a third party 
notice by digital delivery, where same is for the time being 
authorised in accordance with Order 39A and, in the case 
4  [218] 
of service, where the third party or third party's solicitor is


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4  [218] 
of service, where the third party or third party's solicitor is 
or becomes a digital user.”; 
(vi) by the insertion in Order 48, immediately following rule 3, 
of the following rule: 
“3A. 
The Clerk may certify any printed version of the 
legible content of any original document which was 
transmitted to or by the Clerk as a certified copy of the 
original.”; 
(vii) by the insertion in Order 49, immediately following rule 7, 
of the following rule: 
“A.


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(vii) by the insertion in Order 49, immediately following rule 7, 
of the following rule: 
“A. 
Rule 7 is subject to the provisions of any Practice 
Direction or direction of the Judge where digital delivery of 
documents has applied to the proceedings, and subject to 
the direction of the Judge in any other case.”; and 
(viii) by the insertion immediately following Order 50 of the 
Order set out in Schedule 2. 
 
 
 
[218]  5 
Schedule 1 
"Order 39A


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Order set out in Schedule 2. 
 
 
 
[218]  5 
Schedule 1 
"Order 39A 
Requirements as to form and delivery of pleadings, documents, and 
notices used in civil proceedings in the Court 
 
I. Definitions 
Definitions 
1. In this Order:- 
references to the "Clerk", where the context so admits or requires, include 
reference to a member of the staff of the Courts Service assigned to the District 
Court for the court district and/or area concerned and for the time being


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string_value:
Court for the court district and/or area concerned and for the time being 
authorised to receive or issue any court document on behalf of the Clerk; 
"court document" includes any claim notice, pleading, notice, affidavit, or other 
document required by these Rules to be lodged with the Clerk in or in connection 
with any civil proceeding; 
"digital delivery" of a court document or other document means delivery of that 
document by electronic means: 
(i) 
by a digital user to the Clerk, 
(ii)


key: chroma:document
string_value:
document by electronic means: 
(i) 
by a digital user to the Clerk, 
(ii) 
by or on behalf of the Clerk to a digital user, or 
(iii) 
by a digital user to another digital user (including a digital user who 
is a party, or who is the solicitor for a party), 
in accordance with any conditions stipulated in the manner provided in this 
Order; 
"digital user" means: 
(i) 
a solicitor, a firm of solicitors, or a legal partnership, acting through


key: chroma:document
string_value:
(i) 
a solicitor, a firm of solicitors, or a legal partnership, acting through 
a person authorised for the purpose by that firm or partnership, or 
(ii) 
a party suing or defending in person, 
which is or who is for the time being authorised to deliver to the Clerk and to 
receive from the Clerk by digital means any court document or other document 
which may be lodged or filed in or with the Court in or in connection with any


key: chroma:document
string_value:
which may be lodged or filed in or with the Court in or in connection with any 
proceedings or category of proceedings in the Court, in respect of which digital 
delivery is for the time being authorised in accordance with section 20 of the 
Civil Law and Criminal Law (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act 2020; 
"network" means an electronic information and communications network or 
system maintained and supported by the Courts Service for the purposes of use


key: chroma:document
string_value:
system maintained and supported by the Courts Service for the purposes of use 
by court users in civil proceedings, for the time being in use in or for the purposes 
of the Court, to which digital users have access, and which is used or capable of 
use for digital delivery; 
"non-personal delivery in hard copy" of a court document means: 
(a) 
delivery of that document in hard copy to the Clerk: 
(i) 
by pre-paid registered post, 
6  [218] 
(ii) 
by pre-paid ordinary post, or


key: chroma:document
string_value:
(i) 
by pre-paid registered post, 
6  [218] 
(ii) 
by pre-paid ordinary post, or 
(iii) through a document exchange service accepted by the 
Clerk, or 
(b) 
deposit of that document in hard copy in a box or at a facility 
maintained for the purpose by the Clerk, 
in accordance with any conditions stipulated in the manner 
provided in rule 8, but does not include digital delivery; 
“personal delivery” means lodgment with the Clerk of a court document in hard


key: chroma:document
string_value:
“personal delivery” means lodgment with the Clerk of a court document in hard 
copy, together with any copy required and proof of payment of any court fee 
required (where necessary, endorsed on the court document), by attendance at 
the office used by the Clerk. 
 
II. Form of documents and provision of copies 
Notices in writing 
2. (1) All notices and notifications required by these Rules must be given in 
writing, unless expressly permitted by the Court to be given orally.


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string_value:
writing, unless expressly permitted by the Court to be given orally. 
(2) Nothing in this Order operates to require a document delivered in 
electronic form, including by digital delivery, to be printed. 
Form of documents 
3. (1) Any document for use in Court which is required or permitted to be 
filed or lodged with the Clerk by delivery in person (of a hard copy) or by 
delivery by post (of a hard copy) must be clearly and legibly printed or written 
on A4-size paper.


key: chroma:document
string_value:
on A4-size paper. 
(2) Where a document is for the time being authorised in accordance with 
this Order to be filed or lodged with the Clerk by digital delivery or to be 
produced in digital form (in soft copy) for use in Court, such document may 
comprise or include: 
(a) 
information transmitted in the form of an electronic document or 
other electronic data to a network (including, for the avoidance of 
doubt, a statement of truth), and 
(b)


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string_value:
doubt, a statement of truth), and 
(b) 
information made available to a digital user on a network to which 
the digital user concerned has secure access, 
which is capable of being presented or reproduced in legible form, 
and any such document need not be provided in printed form, notwithstanding 
any other provision of these Rules. 
Provision of copy documents 
4. 
Any party who is entitled to a copy of a document which has been filed


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string_value:
4. 
Any party who is entitled to a copy of a document which has been filed 
by or on behalf of another party may request such a copy from the party who 
filed it, and if that party fails to provide a copy, the party seeking the document 
may obtain a copy from the Clerk. 
 
[218]  7 
Provision of copies 
5. 
Where a document has been filed or lodged by digital delivery, the party 
who has filed it or his solicitor may satisfy a request for a copy by providing a


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string_value:
who has filed it or his solicitor may satisfy a request for a copy by providing a 
legible print which corresponds entirely in its content with the digital original 
document, or by providing a certified copy of such a legible print. 
Copy certified by Clerk 
6. 
The Clerk may certify a copy of an original document or a legible print 
of a document which has been filed by digital delivery. 
 
III. Lodgment or filing of documents by personal delivery 
Personal delivery at office 
7.


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string_value:
III. Lodgment or filing of documents by personal delivery 
Personal delivery at office 
7. 
Lodgment or filing of documents may be effected by personal delivery 
during the hours at which the public office at which the Clerk conducts business 
is open to the public. 
 
IV. Lodgment or filing of documents by non-personal delivery in hard copy 
Conditions for non-personal delivery in hard copy 
8. (1) The Clerk may stipulate conditions, to be published in such manner as


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8. (1) The Clerk may stipulate conditions, to be published in such manner as 
the Clerk may approve, subject to which non-personal delivery in hard copy of 
a court document may be effected. 
(2) Such conditions referred to in sub-rule (1) may be particular or general, 
and may include a requirement for the discharge of the expense of returning any 
court document, or copy of such document, by particular means to the person


key: chroma:document
string_value:
court document, or copy of such document, by particular means to the person 
who has delivered it. Where no such conditions are for the time being stipulated, 
the existing practice shall continue to be used. 
(3) Where a provision of these Rules requires or authorises a party or person 
to lodge or file any court document, such lodgment or filing may be effected by 
non-personal delivery in hard copy in accordance with any condition stipulated


key: chroma:document
string_value:
non-personal delivery in hard copy in accordance with any condition stipulated 
for that means of non-personal delivery in hard copy. 
Additional requirements for non-personal delivery in hard copy 
9. (1) Where any court document is authorised to be lodged by non-personal 
delivery in hard copy: 
(a) 
the court document must be accompanied by such document, if 
any, as is required under any conditions stipulated concerning 
non-personal delivery in hard copy in accordance with rule 8; 
(b)


key: chroma:document
string_value:
non-personal delivery in hard copy in accordance with rule 8; 
(b) 
where payment of a court fee is chargeable in respect of the 
lodgment of the court document, the court document shall not be 
used unless and until payment of the applicable court fee is 
recorded by a means for the time being authorised for the 
recording of the payment of a court fee; 
(c) 
the date of lodgment of the document is, unless the contrary is 
proven, deemed to be the date of lodgment recorded in any record


key: chroma:document
string_value:
proven, deemed to be the date of lodgment recorded in any record 
8  [218] 
kept for the purpose by or on behalf of the Clerk and such date 
may be endorsed on the court document and any copies by or on 
behalf of the Clerk; 
(d) 
for the purpose of fixing the return date of any notice of 
application (or other originating document or notice of motion 
requiring a return date) lodged for issue by non-personal delivery 
in hard copy, a period of four days must, in any case in which


key: chroma:document
string_value:
in hard copy, a period of four days must, in any case in which 
service is necessary, be allowed, subject to the provisions of any 
order of the Court in that regard; 
(e) 
there must be delivered with any court document lodged by non-
personal delivery in hard copy so many copies of that document 
and such other documents as would be required on the personal 
delivery of that court document. 
(2) Where a court document, having been issued, has been returned to the


key: chroma:document
string_value:
(2) Where a court document, having been issued, has been returned to the 
party or person who lodged it for issue by non-personal delivery in hard copy, 
and that court document is not received by that party or person within a 
reasonable time after it is sent, 
(a) 
the Clerk concerned may, at the request of that party or person, 
furnish to that person - 
(i) 
a copy of any duplicate or copy of the court document 
concerned retained by the Clerk, with a certificate endorsed


key: chroma:document
string_value:
concerned retained by the Clerk, with a certificate endorsed 
thereon confirming the issue of the court document to 
which the duplicate or copy relates; 
(ii) 
a certificate as to any record made of the issue of the court 
document concerned, and 
(b) 
the party or person may, subject to and in accordance with any 
order or direction of the Court, proceed on a copy of the court 
document certified in accordance with paragraph (a)(i) or, where


key: chroma:document
string_value:
document certified in accordance with paragraph (a)(i) or, where 
the Court so permits, a copy of the court document lodged for 
issue, certified by the party who lodged it or his or her solicitor to 
be a true copy of the court document lodged, and a certificate 
given in accordance with paragraph (a)(ii). 
Exception where documents required to be delivered by personal delivery 
10. The provisions of rules 8 and 9 do not apply to any class of court


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string_value:
10. The provisions of rules 8 and 9 do not apply to any class of court 
documents or documents in respect of which the President of the Court has by 
Practice Direction directed or the Judge has directed must be lodged by personal 
delivery. 
 
V. Lodgment or filing of documents by digital delivery 
This Part prevails where digital delivery is concerned 
11. (1) In the event that any conflict arises between the provision of any rule


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11. (1) In the event that any conflict arises between the provision of any rule 
of this Order and any other provision of these Rules, the provision of the rule of 
this Order will, in respect of the digital delivery of any document, prevail. 
[218]  9 
(2) The provisions of this Order are without prejudice to the use of and 
permission of access to any network used for any purpose not regulated by these 
Rules. 
Authorisation of digital delivery of court documents or documents


key: chroma:document
string_value:
Rules. 
Authorisation of digital delivery of court documents or documents 
12. (1) Having consulted with the Chief Executive Officer of the Courts 
Service, the President of the Court may, from time to time, by Practice Direction, 
authorise (including on a temporary or trial basis) the use of digital delivery by 
or in respect of any: 
(i) 
category or class of proceedings or of applications within 
proceedings, either in any specified court district or districts


key: chroma:document
string_value:
proceedings, either in any specified court district or districts 
(and/or court area or areas) or generally; 
(ii) 
category or class of documents, either in any specified court 
district or districts (and/or court area or areas) or generally; 
(iii) category or class of parties, legal representatives, and/or 
other persons interested in proceedings (in this rule a "court 
user"), either in any specified court district or districts 
(and/or court area or areas) or generally.


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string_value:
(and/or court area or areas) or generally. 
(2) Unless otherwise expressly provided in such Practice Direction, where 
the use of digital delivery is authorised in accordance with sub-rule (1), such 
delivery will be an alternative to any other method by which such document 
could be filed, lodged, issued, or transmitted by or to the party or person 
concerned. 
(3) A network operated for the purposes of digital delivery is, for the


key: chroma:document
string_value:
concerned. 
(3) A network operated for the purposes of digital delivery is, for the 
purposes of the delivery of any court document or document to any Clerk, 
deemed to be operational only during the hours during which the public office 
at which the Clerk conducts business is open to the public. 
(4) Any period when a network operated for the purposes of digital delivery 
is inoperative will be treated, for the purposes of Order 12, rule 4B, as a period


key: chroma:document
string_value:
is inoperative will be treated, for the purposes of Order 12, rule 4B, as a period 
during which the public office at which the Clerk conducts business is closed. 
Conditions for becoming digital user 
13. (1) A natural person may not be authorised to become a digital user 
unless: 
(a) 
such person has first submitted sufficient evidence of his or her 
identity which may, without limitation, include: 
(i) 
production of the original or a certified copy of a relevant


key: chroma:document
string_value:
(i) 
production of the original or a certified copy of a relevant 
document (within the meaning of section 2 of the Statutory 
Declarations Act 1938); 
(ii) 
provision of the personal public service number (within the 
meaning of section 262 of the Social Welfare Consolidation 
Act 2005) issued to the person; 
(iii) provision of proof of the person's residential address, and 
(b) 
such person has undertaken to comply with any published terms


key: chroma:document
string_value:
(b) 
such person has undertaken to comply with any published terms 
and conditions of use of the network concerned for the purposes 
of digital delivery. 
10  [218] 
(2) A firm of solicitors or legal partnership may not be authorised to become 
a digital user unless: 
(i) 
the firm or partnership has first submitted sufficient 
evidence of its establishment and standing; 
(ii) 
the firm or partnership has submitted sufficient evidence of


key: chroma:document
string_value:
(ii) 
the firm or partnership has submitted sufficient evidence of 
the identity of each natural person authorised on behalf of 
the firm to transmit court documents through the network 
by digital delivery; 
(iii) the firm or partnership has undertaken to comply with any 
published terms and conditions of use of the network 
concerned for the purposes of digital delivery. 
Additional conditions for use of the network


key: chroma:document
string_value:
concerned for the purposes of digital delivery. 
Additional conditions for use of the network 
14. The Chief Executive Officer of the Courts Service may, with the approval 
of the President of the Court in respect of proceedings in the Court, stipulate 
additional conditions for use of the network. 
Documents transmitted by digital delivery 
15. (1) Any court document transmitted by digital delivery by or on behalf 
of a party must: 
(a) 
contain: 
(i)


key: chroma:document
string_value:
of a party must: 
(a) 
contain: 
(i) 
the name and registered place of business of the solicitor for 
the party transmitting or delivering the same or, as the case 
may be, 
(ii) 
the name and place of residence, or address for service, of 
any party suing or appearing in person; 
(b) 
include the name of the natural person transmitting the court 
document concerned; 
(c) 
where submitted otherwise than by the party himself or herself,


key: chroma:document
string_value:
document concerned; 
(c) 
where submitted otherwise than by the party himself or herself, 
include a statement that the court document is submitted with the 
authority of the party on whose behalf it is submitted. 
(2) Any document other than a court document which is transmitted by or on 
behalf of a party by digital delivery as a copy in electronic form of an original 
document must have endorsed on or associated with such copy a certificate given


key: chroma:document
string_value:
document must have endorsed on or associated with such copy a certificate given 
by the party or by a named solicitor that the copy has been compared to, and is 
a true copy of, the original document. 
(3) Where any court document is authorised to be filed or lodged by digital 
delivery: 
(a) 
the court document must be accompanied by such information, if 
any, as is required under any conditions stipulated concerning 
digital delivery in accordance with rule 14; 
(b)


key: chroma:document
string_value:
digital delivery in accordance with rule 14; 
(b) 
where a court fee is chargeable in respect of the court document, 
the court document may not be used unless and until payment of 
the applicable court fee is recorded by a means for the time being 
authorised for the recording of the payment of a court fee; 
[218]  11 
(c) 
the date of filing, lodgment, or, as the case may be, issue of the 
court document shall, unless the contrary is proven, be deemed to


key: chroma:document
string_value:
court document shall, unless the contrary is proven, be deemed to 
be the date of filing, lodgment, or, as the case may be, issue 
recorded in any record kept for the purpose by or on behalf of the 
Clerk or on the network and such date may be endorsed 
electronically on the court document and any copies by or on 
behalf of the Clerk and may be notified electronically through the 
network to the party concerned; 
(d) 
for the purpose of fixing a return date for any originating


key: chroma:document
string_value:
network to the party concerned; 
(d) 
for the purpose of fixing a return date for any originating 
document or notice of motion which requires a return date, and 
which is lodged for issue by digital delivery, a period of four days 
will, in any case in which service is necessary, be allowed, subject 
to the provisions of any order of the Court in that regard; 
(e) 
any obligation or entitlement arising under these Rules to lodge


key: chroma:document
string_value:
(e) 
any obligation or entitlement arising under these Rules to lodge 
or, as the case may be, to file a court document shall, unless the 
contrary is proved, be satisfied by the digital delivery of the 
document to the network and the issuance by the network of 
confirmation of lodgment or, as the case may be, filing; 
(f) 
the network or the Clerk will alert digital users, prior to 
submission, where the filing, lodgment, or issue of any court


key: chroma:document
string_value:
submission, where the filing, lodgment, or issue of any court 
document is subject to checking by a court officer. 
(4) Where the Clerk is satisfied that it is necessary to do so, he or she may: 
(a) 
retransmit a court document, and may certify the date of issue of 
the court document concerned; 
(b) 
deliver a printed copy of the court document concerned by 
delivery in hard copy, and may certify the date of issue of the 
court document concerned,


key: chroma:document
string_value:
delivery in hard copy, and may certify the date of issue of the 
court document concerned, 
and in either such case, any party or person affected may, subject to and in 
accordance with any order or direction of the Court, proceed on a court document 
or copy of a court document certified in accordance with paragraph (a) or (b). 
(5) Where any affidavit is for the time being authorised to be filed by digital 
delivery, the affidavit shall be transmitted in such electronic format as is


key: chroma:document
string_value:
delivery, the affidavit shall be transmitted in such electronic format as is 
accommodated by the network, and it shall be and remain the obligation of the 
party filing any such affidavit to retain the affidavit bearing the original 
manuscript signature of the deponent and any and all of the marked exhibits to 
the affidavit, which remain subject to the directions of any court before which 
such affidavit is, or may be, relied upon or opened.


key: chroma:document
string_value:
such affidavit is, or may be, relied upon or opened. 
(6) Where any written statement of evidence or written statement outlining 
the essential elements of evidence is authorised or required by any Practice 
Direction or any order or direction of the Court to be delivered and/or filed in 
any proceedings in which digital delivery is for the time being authorised, such 
statement may be delivered and/or filed by transmission through the network,


key: chroma:document
string_value:
statement may be delivered and/or filed by transmission through the network, 
but shall, if intended to be admitted into evidence, be subject to verification on 
oath or affirmation at the trial of the proceedings. 
12  [218] 
(7) Where any affidavit or any statement referred to in sub-rule (6) is for the 
time being authorised to be filed by digital delivery, Order 50A, rule 6 shall 
apply mutatis mutandis to any exhibits to such affidavit or statement. 
Signature


key: chroma:document
string_value:
apply mutatis mutandis to any exhibits to such affidavit or statement. 
Signature 
16. Where any provision of these Rules or the existing practice of the Court 
requires that any court document or document be signed, such requirement may 
be satisfied in the case of any court document or document transmitted or to be 
transmitted by digital delivery by the inclusion of an electronic signature within 
the meaning of section 2 of the Electronic Commerce Act 2000 and/or Article 3


key: chroma:document
string_value:
the meaning of section 2 of the Electronic Commerce Act 2000 and/or Article 3 
of Regulation 910/2014/EU, which is used in accordance with the requirements 
of that Act and/or that Regulation. 
 
VI. Service of documents using digital delivery 
Service of documents where digital delivery applies 
17. (1) Where any provision of any enactment, of these Rules or the existing 
practice of the Court, requires or permits that any court document or document


key: chroma:document
string_value:
practice of the Court, requires or permits that any court document or document 
be served upon any person, such requirement may be satisfied in any case where 
the person to be served is or becomes a digital user by the transmission by digital 
delivery of the court document or document through the network to the person 
concerned, and in any such case any record generated by or within the network 
of such transmission may be produced as evidence of such service in lieu of any


key: chroma:document
string_value:
of such transmission may be produced as evidence of such service in lieu of any 
statutory declaration of service. (Where the person to be served is not a digital 
user, such person shall be served with a printed copy of the court document or 
document in such other manner as is permitted in the circumstances by these 
Rules.) 
(2) Sub-rule (1) does not apply in any case where these Rules or the existing 
practice of the Court require personal service, but any requirement that a person


key: chroma:document
string_value:
practice of the Court require personal service, but any requirement that a person 
being served personally with a court document be shown any original or copy of 
the court document shall, where the court document concerned has been issued 
by digital delivery, be satisfied by serving the person personally with a copy of 
the court document concerned and, at the same time, providing the person with 
a written statement that the court document concerned has been issued by digital 
delivery.


key: chroma:document
string_value:
a written statement that the court document concerned has been issued by digital 
delivery. 
 
VII. Misuse of digital delivery network 
Reference to Court 
18. (1) Where a party alleges that another person has improperly used 
permissions available to a digital user to prejudice that party in any proceedings, 
the party aggrieved may apply to the Court by motion on notice, grounded on an 
affidavit, and the Court may make such order or give such directions as are just 
in the circumstances.


key: chroma:document
string_value:
in the circumstances. 
(2) Where a Clerk is concerned that a person has improperly used 
permissions available to a digital user to prejudice a party in any proceedings, 
the Clerk may refer the matter to the Court on notice to the parties concerned, 
[218]  13 
and the Court may make such order or give such directions as are just in the 
circumstances." 
 
 
14  [218] 
Schedule 2 
"Order 50A 
Statements of Truth 
I. General 
1. 
In this Order:


key: chroma:document
string_value:
14  [218] 
Schedule 2 
"Order 50A 
Statements of Truth 
I. General 
1. 
In this Order: 
"statement of truth" means a statement of truth for the time being required or 
authorised by these Rules to be made in place of an affidavit or statutory 
declaration, in accordance with section 21 of the Civil Law and Criminal Law 
(Miscellaneous Provisions) Act 2020, and which is or is intended to be 
transmitted to or by a network for the purposes of civil proceedings in the Court;


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transmitted to or by a network for the purposes of civil proceedings in the Court; 
"relevant document" has the same meaning as in section 2 of the Statutory 
Declarations Act 1938. 
2. (1) Where any affidavit is required or permitted to be lodged or delivered 
in any proceedings in which digital delivery is for the time being authorised in 
accordance with Order 39A: 
(a) 
the lodgment or filing of a statement of truth shall satisfy any


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string_value:
accordance with Order 39A: 
(a) 
the lodgment or filing of a statement of truth shall satisfy any 
obligation to lodge, or, as the case may be, to file an affidavit; 
(b) 
the service of a statement of truth shall satisfy any obligation to 
serve an affidavit; 
(c) 
the party or person concerned may make and transmit a statement 
of truth in lieu of swearing and filing an affidavit; and 
(d) 
the provisions of this Order shall apply to every such statement of 
truth.


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(d) 
the provisions of this Order shall apply to every such statement of 
truth. 
(2) This Order applies to statements of truth whether made within or outside 
the State. 
3. 
The provisions of these Rules which confer an entitlement to examine or 
cross-examine, or to apply to cross-examine, the deponent to any affidavit shall 
apply mutatis mutandis to the maker of any statement of truth. The Court may, 
on the application of any party, direct the attendance for cross-examination of


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on the application of any party, direct the attendance for cross-examination of 
the maker of any such statement of truth. 
4. (1) A statement of truth: 
(a) 
may only be made within the network, in accordance with the 
terms and conditions of use for the time being in effect concerning 
the network, and any instructions for the maker provided on the 
network; 
(b) 
shall be made by being signed by the maker using an electronic 
signature; 
(c) 
shall include each of the following statements:


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signature; 
(c) 
shall include each of the following statements: 
"- I have an honest belief that the facts stated in this Statement of 
Truth are true. 
- I understand that it is a crime to make a Statement of Truth if I 
do not honestly believe it is true. 
[218]  15 
- I understand that if I make a false Statement of Truth, I may 
have to go to prison, pay a fine, or both." 
(2) Where any document is intended to be exhibited to a statement of truth: 
(a)


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(2) Where any document is intended to be exhibited to a statement of truth: 
(a) 
in any case in which exhibits are required to be transmitted to the 
network with the statement of truth, the statement of truth shall 
identify the exhibit or sequence of exhibits, or 
(b) 
in any other case, the maker shall, prior to signing the statement 
of truth, mark each exhibit for identification purposes by signing 
or as otherwise provided in any Practice Direction,


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or as otherwise provided in any Practice Direction, 
and each such exhibit is subject to the requirements of rule 6. 
5. (1) A statement of truth may only be filed by being transmitted, in 
accordance with the terms and conditions of use for the time being in effect 
concerning the network, and any instructions for the filing of statements of truth 
provided on the network, by a digital user: 
(a) 
who is a solicitor, or which is a firm of solicitors or a legal


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(a) 
who is a solicitor, or which is a firm of solicitors or a legal 
partnership for the time being on record for the maker of the 
statement of truth concerned, or, as the case may be, the party on 
whose behalf the statement of truth concerned is made, and who 
has, or which has, verified the identity of the maker of the 
statement of truth concerned; 
(b) 
who is a natural person on whose behalf as a party to proceedings 
the statement of truth concerned is made and who has verified the


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string_value:
the statement of truth concerned is made and who has verified the 
identity of the maker of the statement of truth concerned; or 
(c) 
who is a natural person making the statement of truth concerned 
on his or her own behalf as a party to proceedings in which the 
statement of truth concerned is made. 
(2) Where a solicitor makes a statement of truth on behalf of a client to 
ground an application in proceedings in which the solicitor has no personal


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ground an application in proceedings in which the solicitor has no personal 
interest, it shall not be necessary for the solicitor's identity to be independently 
verified and it shall suffice for the solicitor to provide his or her Law Society 
solicitor number. 
6. (1) Notwithstanding sub-rules (2) and (3), it shall be and remain the 
obligation of the party filing any statement of truth to retain all exhibits to any


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string_value:
obligation of the party filing any statement of truth to retain all exhibits to any 
statement of truth, which remain subject to the directions of any court before 
which such statement of truth is, or may be, relied upon or opened. 
(2) Where so required by Practice Direction, copies of each exhibit to a 
statement of truth shall be uploaded to the network when the statement of truth 
concerned is transmitted for filing on the network. Such copies shall be made


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string_value:
concerned is transmitted for filing on the network. Such copies shall be made 
available on the network to the parties and the Court only for such period as is 
provided in the terms and conditions for use of the network, and may thereafter, 
subject to the direction of the Court, any Practice Direction, and any other 
requirement of law, be deleted from the network. 
(3) In any case in which sub-rule (2) does not apply, and where the network


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(3) In any case in which sub-rule (2) does not apply, and where the network 
so facilitates, the parties may agree to upload to the network copies of exhibits. 
Such copies shall be made available on the network to the parties and the Court 
16  [218] 
only for such period as is provided in the terms and conditions for use of the 
network, and may thereafter, subject to the direction of the Court, any Practice 
Direction, and any other requirement of law, be deleted from the network.


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string_value:
Direction, and any other requirement of law, be deleted from the network. 
7. (1) A statement of truth filed by a digital user mentioned in rule 5(i)(a) 
shall, unless rule 5(2) applies, include or have associated with it a certificate that 
a named solicitor has satisfied himself or herself of the identity of the maker by 
reference to a relevant document, or that the maker is personally known to a 
named solicitor.


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string_value:
reference to a relevant document, or that the maker is personally known to a 
named solicitor. 
(2) A statement of truth filed by a digital user mentioned in rule 5(i)(b) shall 
include or have associated with it a certificate that the person filing the statement 
of truth has satisfied himself or herself of the identity of the maker by reference 
to a relevant document, or that the maker is personally known to the person filing 
the statement of truth.


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the statement of truth. 
(3) Nothing in this rule limits the power of a court to inquire into the 
circumstances in which a statement of truth was made or to require or permit 
further evidence of the matters contained in a statement of truth. 
8. 
The filing of a statement of truth in accordance with rule 5 shall satisfy 
any requirement of these Rules for the filing of an affidavit with the Clerk. 
9. 
Where a special time is limited for filing any statement of truth, no


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9. 
Where a special time is limited for filing any statement of truth, no 
statement of truth filed after that time shall be used, unless by leave of the Court. 
II. Formal requirements 
10. Every statement of truth shall be entitled in the same form as would be 
used in an affidavit sworn in the cause or matter concerned or shall capture and 
confirm the title and record number of the cause or matter as recorded on the 
network.


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confirm the title and record number of the cause or matter as recorded on the 
network. 
11. A statement of truth shall be confined to such facts as the maker is able 
of his or her own knowledge to prove, and shall state the maker's means of 
knowledge thereof, except on interlocutory motions, on which statements as to 
the maker's belief, with the grounds thereof, may be admitted. The costs of any 
statement of truth which shall unnecessarily set forth matters of hearsay or


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string_value:
statement of truth which shall unnecessarily set forth matters of hearsay or 
argumentative matter, or copies of or extracts from documents, shall not be 
allowed. 
12. (1) Every statement of truth shall state the maker's description, trade, 
profession, or employment, and 
(i) 
the maker's place of business, trade, profession, or 
employment, or 
(ii) 
the maker's true place of abode. 
(2) Every statement of truth shall state that the maker is over 18 years of age,


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(2) Every statement of truth shall state that the maker is over 18 years of age, 
but if the maker is under 18 years of age, the statement of truth must state the 
maker's exact age. 
13. Every statement of truth shall capture or record the date on which it is 
made and the place where is made. 
[218]  17 
14. There shall be included in or associated with every statement of truth a 
record showing on whose behalf it is filed, and no statement of truth shall be


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record showing on whose behalf it is filed, and no statement of truth shall be 
used without such record, unless the Court shall otherwise direct. 
15. The Court may receive any statement of truth made for the purpose of 
being used in civil proceedings in the Court: 
(a) 
despite any defect by misdescription of the parties, or 
(b) 
despite any other irregularity in its form, 
and where the Court does so, it may direct a memorandum to be made on the


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and where the Court does so, it may direct a memorandum to be made on the 
document (which may be done by electronic means) that it has been so received. 
16. (1) Statements of truth may be made only in a language supported by 
the network. 
(2) A person who is not capable of making a statement of truth in a language 
supported by the network may make a foreign language affidavit in accordance 
with Order 50, and the translator may make a statement of truth in which: 
(i)


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with Order 50, and the translator may make a statement of truth in which: 
(i) 
the translator sets out his or her qualifications as a 
translator, 
(ii) 
copies of the foreign language affidavit and the translator's 
original translation thereof are exhibited, and 
(iii) the translator confirms that the translation is accurate." 
 
 
18  [218] 
EXPLANATORY NOTE 
 
(This note is not part of the Instrument and does not purport to be a legal 
interpretation.)


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string_value:
(This note is not part of the Instrument and does not purport to be a legal 
interpretation.) 
 
These are rules to facilitate the digitalisation of civil proceedings, including 
digital filing, lodgment, and service of documents, and to provide for electronic 
transmission of a Statement of Truth in place of an affidavit. 
 
[218]  19 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
BAILE ÁTHA CLIATH 
ARNA FHOILSIÚ AG OIFIG AN tSOLÁTHAIR 
Le ceannach díreach ó 
FOILSEACHÁIN RIALTAIS,


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string_value:
ARNA FHOILSIÚ AG OIFIG AN tSOLÁTHAIR 
Le ceannach díreach ó 
FOILSEACHÁIN RIALTAIS, 
BÓTHAR BHAILE UÍ BHEOLÁIN, 
CILL MHAIGHNEANN, 
BAILE ÁTHA CLIATH 8, 
D08 XAO6  
 
Teil: 046 942 3100 
r-phost: publications@opw.ie 
—————— 
 
 
DUBLIN 
PUBLISHED BY THE STATIONERY OFFICE 
To be purchased from 
GOVERNMENT PUBLICATIONS, 
MOUNTSHANNON ROAD, 
KILMAINHAM, DUBLIN 8, 
D08 XAO6 
 
Tel: 046 942 3100 
E-mail: publications@opw.ie 
—————— 
 
 
€ 4.50   
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
(LCJ-86) 30. 5/25. Propylon.


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string_value:
STATUTORY INSTRUMENTS. 
 
 
 
 
S.I. No. 41 of 2025 
 
 
 
 
________________ 
 
 
 
 
EUROPEAN UNION (EUROPEAN GREEN BONDS STANDARDS AND 
DISCLOSURES) REGULATIONS 2025 
 
 
 
2  [41] 
 
S.I. No. 41 of 2025 
 
EUROPEAN UNION (EUROPEAN GREEN BONDS STANDARDS AND 
DISCLOSURES) REGULATIONS 2025 
 
CONTENTS 
 
PART 1 
PRELIMINARY 
1. 
Citation and commencement 
2. 
Interpretation 
 
PART 2 
POWERS OF BANK 
3. 
Powers of Bank 
4. 
Directions by Bank 
 
PART 3


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2. 
Interpretation 
 
PART 2 
POWERS OF BANK 
3. 
Powers of Bank 
4. 
Directions by Bank 
 
PART 3 
AUTHORISED OFFICERS AND RELATED MATTERS 
5. 
Definitions 
6. 
Power to appoint authorised officers 
7. 
Powers of authorised officers 
8. 
Warrants 
 
 
PART 4 
ENFORCEMENT IN RELATION TO REGULATED FINANCIAL SERVICE 
PROVIDERS 
9. 
Administrative sanctions 
 
PART 5 
ENFORCEMENT IN RELATION TO NON-REGULATED FINANCIAL 
SERVICE PROVIDERS 
10. 
Interpretation 
11. 
Appointment of assessor 
12.


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SERVICE PROVIDERS 
10. 
Interpretation 
11. 
Appointment of assessor 
12. 
Revocation of appointment of assessor 
13. 
Power to require witnesses to appear and give evidence 
[41]  3 
 
14. 
Referral to Court on question of law 
15. 
Assessee to be issued copy of any adverse assessment, etc. 
16. 
Right of appeal against adverse assessment (including specified 
sanctions) 
17. 
Power to correct assessments 
18. 
When specified sanctions take effect 
19.


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sanctions) 
17. 
Power to correct assessments 
18. 
When specified sanctions take effect 
19. 
Enforcement of adverse assessment (including specified sanctions) 
20. 
Sanctions that may be imposed by Bank 
21. 
Power of Bank to resolve suspected contraventions, etc. 
 
PART 6 
MISCELLANEOUS PROVISIONS 
22. 
Exercise of powers to impose sanctions 
23. 
Right of appeal 
24. 
Notifications 
25. 
Offence – obstruction of authorised officer in exercise of officer’s 
powers 
26.


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25. 
Offence – obstruction of authorised officer in exercise of officer’s 
powers 
26. 
Offence – false, etc. information 
27. 
Offences by body corporate 
28. 
Prosecution of offences 
29. 
Amendment of Act of 1942 
 
 
4  [41] 
 
S.I. No. 41 of 2025 
 
EUROPEAN UNION (EUROPEAN GREEN BONDS STANDARDS AND 
DISCLOSURES) REGULATIONS 2025 
 
I, PASCHAL DONOHOE, Minister for Finance, in exercise of the powers 
conferred on me by section 3 of the European Communities Act 1972 (No. 27 of


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conferred on me by section 3 of the European Communities Act 1972 (No. 27 of 
1972) and for the purposes of giving full effect to Regulation (EU) 2023/2631 
of the European Parliament and of the Council of 22 November 20231 hereby 
make the following regulations: 
 
PART 1 
PRELIMINARY 
Citation and commencement 
1. (1) These Regulations may be cited as the European Union (European 
Green Bonds Standards and Disclosures) Regulations 2025.


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Green Bonds Standards and Disclosures) Regulations 2025. 
(2) These Regulations shall come into operation on 27 February 2025. 
 
Interpretation 
2. (1) In these Regulations – 
“Act of 1942” means the Central Bank Act 1942 (No. 22 of 1942); 
“Bank” means the Central Bank of Ireland; 
“contravention” includes, in relation to any provision of the EuGB Regulation 
or these Regulations, a failure to comply with that provision, and also includes 
– 
(a) 
attempting to commit a contravention, 
(b)


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– 
(a) 
attempting to commit a contravention, 
(b) 
aiding, abetting, counselling or procuring a person to commit a 
contravention, 
(c) 
inducing, or attempting to induce, a person (whether by threats or 
promises or otherwise) to commit a contravention, 
(d) 
being (directly or indirectly) knowingly concerned in, or a party 
to, a contravention, and 
(e) 
conspiring with others to commit a contravention, and 
“contravene” shall be construed accordingly; 
“Court” means the High Court;


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“contravene” shall be construed accordingly; 
“Court” means the High Court; 
“enactment” has the same meaning as it has in the Interpretation Act 2005 (No. 
23 of 2005); 
 
 
1 OJ L 2631, 30.11.2023, p.1 
Notice of the making of this Statutory Instrument was published in 
"Iris Oifigiúil" of 25th February, 2025. 
[41]  5 
 
“EuGB Regulation” means Regulation (EU) 2023/2631 of the European 
Parliament and the Council of 22 November 20231 on European Green Bonds


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Parliament and the Council of 22 November 20231 on European Green Bonds 
and optional disclosures for bonds marketed as environmentally sustainable and 
for sustainability-linked bonds, as amended by Article 19 of Regulation (EU) 
2023/2869 of the European Parliament and of the Council of 13 December 20232 
amending certain Regulations as regards the establishment and functioning of 
the European single access point; 
“Member State” means a state, other than the State, which is a member of the


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string_value:
“Member State” means a state, other than the State, which is a member of the 
European Union and where relevant includes a state, other than a member of the 
European Union, which is a party to the agreement on the European Economic 
Area signed at Oporto on 2 May 1992 as adjusted by all subsequent amendments 
to that agreement. 
(2) A word or expression that is used in these Regulations and is also used 
in the EuGB Regulation has, unless the context otherwise requires, the same


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in the EuGB Regulation has, unless the context otherwise requires, the same 
meaning in these Regulations as it has in the EuGB Regulation. 
 
PART 2 
POWERS OF BANK 
Powers of Bank 
3. (1) The Bank shall have the following supervisory and investigatory 
powers for the purpose of fulfilling its duties under Article 45 of the EuGB 
Regulation: 
(a) 
to require issuers to publish the European Green Bond factsheets 
referred to in Article 10 of the EuGB Regulation or to include in


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string_value:
referred to in Article 10 of the EuGB Regulation or to include in 
those factsheets the information referred to in Annex I to the 
EuGB Regulation; 
(b) 
to require issuers to publish reviews and assessments; 
(c) 
to require issuers to publish annual allocation reports or include 
in annual allocation reports the information referred to in Annex 
II to the EuGB Regulation; 
(d) 
to require issuers to publish an impact report or include in the


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II to the EuGB Regulation; 
(d) 
to require issuers to publish an impact report or include in the 
impact report the information referred to in Annex III to the 
EuGB Regulation; 
(e) 
to require issuers to notify the Bank of the publication in 
accordance with Article 15(4) of the EuGB Regulation; 
(f) 
where issuers use the common templates provided for in Article 
21 of the EuGB Regulation, to require those issuers to include the 
elements referred to therein in their periodic post-issuance


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elements referred to therein in their periodic post-issuance 
disclosures; 
(g) 
to require auditors and the senior management of the issuer to 
provide relevant information and documents; 
 
2 OJ L 2869, 20.12.2023, p. 1 
6  [41] 
 
(h) 
to suspend an offer or admission to trading on a regulated market 
of European Green Bonds for a maximum of 10 consecutive 
working days on any single occasion where there are reasonable 
grounds for suspecting that the issuer has failed to comply with


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string_value:
grounds for suspecting that the issuer has failed to comply with 
an obligation pursuant to Title II, Chapter 2, or Article 18 or 19 
of the EuGB Regulation; 
(i) 
to prohibit an offer or admission to trading on a regulated market 
of European Green Bonds where there are reasonable grounds for 
suspecting that the issuer continues to fail to comply with an 
obligation pursuant to Title II, Chapter 2, or Article 18 or 19 of 
the EuGB Regulation; 
(j)


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string_value:
obligation pursuant to Title II, Chapter 2, or Article 18 or 19 of 
the EuGB Regulation; 
(j) 
to suspend advertisements for a maximum of 10 consecutive 
working days, or require issuers of European Green Bonds or 
financial intermediaries concerned to suspend advertisements for 
a maximum of 10 consecutive working days on any single 
occasion where there are reasonable grounds for suspecting that 
the issuer has failed to comply with an obligation pursuant to Title


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string_value:
the issuer has failed to comply with an obligation pursuant to Title 
II, Chapter 2, or Article 18 or 19 of the EuGB Regulation; 
(k) 
to prohibit advertisements, or require issuers of European Green 
Bonds 
or financial 
intermediaries 
concerned to 
cease 
advertisements where there are reasonable grounds for suspecting 
that the issuer continues to fail to comply with an obligation 
pursuant to Title II, Chapter 2, or Article 18 or 19 of the EuGB 
Regulation; 
(l)


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pursuant to Title II, Chapter 2, or Article 18 or 19 of the EuGB 
Regulation; 
(l) 
to make public the fact that an issuer of European Green Bonds 
fails to comply with this Regulation, and to require that issuer to 
publish that information on its website; 
(m) to prohibit an issuer from issuing European Green Bonds for a 
period not exceeding one year in the event that an issuer has 
repeatedly and severely infringed Title II, Chapter 2, or Article 
18 or 19 of the EuGB Regulation; 
(n)


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18 or 19 of the EuGB Regulation; 
(n) 
following a period of 3 months after the requirement referred to 
in subparagraph (l), to make public the fact that the issuer of 
European Green Bonds no longer complies with Article 3 of the 
EuGB Regulation as regards the use of the designation “European 
Green Bond” or “EuGB”, and to require that issuer to publish that 
information on its website; 
(o) 
to carry out on-site inspections or investigations at sites other than


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(o) 
to carry out on-site inspections or investigations at sites other than 
the private residences of natural persons, and for that purpose to 
enter premises in order to access documents and other data in any 
form, where a reasonable suspicion exists that documents and 
other data related to the subject matter of the inspection or 
investigation may be relevant to prove a contravention of these 
Regulations or the EuGB Regulation. 
 
[41]  7


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Regulations or the EuGB Regulation. 
 
[41]  7 
 
(2) The powers of the Bank referred to in paragraph (1) are without prejudice 
to the powers of the Bank under any other provision of these Regulations, the 
EuGB Regulation or any other enactment. 
 
Directions by Bank 
4. (1) The Bank may give one or more of the directions specified in 
paragraph (2) if the Bank considers it necessary to do so in order to – 
(a) 
perform its functions under these Regulations or the EuGB Regulation, 
(b)


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string_value:
(a) 
perform its functions under these Regulations or the EuGB Regulation, 
(b) 
prevent any person from contravening or continuing to contravene a 
provision of these Regulations or the EuGB Regulation, or 
(c) 
protect otherwise the interests of investors. 
(2) Each of the following is a direction referred to in paragraph (1), namely 
a direction to a person – 
(a) 
to do or not to do anything that the Bank may require to be done


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string_value:
a direction to a person – 
(a) 
to do or not to do anything that the Bank may require to be done 
or not to be done in exercise of the powers of the Bank referred 
to in Regulation 3(1), 
(b) 
not to dispose of or otherwise dissipate any assets or specified 
assets of the person or not to do any of those things save where 
specified conditions are complied with, 
(c) 
not to dispose of or otherwise dissipate any assets or specified


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string_value:
(c) 
not to dispose of or otherwise dissipate any assets or specified 
assets the beneficial interest in which is vested in another person 
or persons or not to do any of those things save where specified 
conditions are complied with, 
(d) 
being a credit institution, not to make any payments from an 
account held with the institution by a specified person or persons 
save with the prior consent of the Bank, 
(e) 
not to accept, process or execute any subscription or order on


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string_value:
(e) 
not to accept, process or execute any subscription or order on 
behalf of a specified person, 
(f) 
not to carry on a business (whether on the person’s behalf or 
another’s behalf) in a specified manner or otherwise than in a 
specified manner, 
(g) 
not to engage in any practice that contravenes a provision of these 
Regulations or the EuGB Regulation, 
(h) 
not to enter into transactions of a specified kind or not to enter 
into such transactions save to a specified extent or save where


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into such transactions save to a specified extent or save where 
specified conditions are complied with, or 
(i) 
not to publish specified information. 
(3) A direction under this Regulation shall – 
(a) 
be in writing, and 
(b) 
specify the date from which it shall have effect and the period for 
which it shall have effect (which shall not exceed 12 months). 
8  [41] 
 
(4) A person may apply to the Court for, and the Court may, if it considers


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8  [41] 
 
(4) A person may apply to the Court for, and the Court may, if it considers 
it appropriate to do so, grant, an order setting aside or varying a direction under 
this Regulation. 
(5) The Bank may, as respects a direction under this Regulation which, in its 
opinion has not been complied with or is unlikely to be complied with (or, in the 
case of a direction referred to in paragraph (2)(b) or (c), irrespective of whether


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case of a direction referred to in paragraph (2)(b) or (c), irrespective of whether 
it is of that opinion), apply to the Court in a summary manner for such order as 
may be appropriate by way of enforcement of the direction and the Court may, 
as it thinks fit, on the hearing of the application, make or refuse to make an order 
providing for such relief. 
(6) An application for an order under paragraph (5) shall be by motion, and


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(6) An application for an order under paragraph (5) shall be by motion, and 
the Court when considering the motion may make such interim or interlocutory 
order as it considers appropriate. 
(7) An application under paragraph (4) may not be made if the direction 
concerned has been the subject of an order made under paragraph (5) (but 
without prejudice to the right of a person, the subject of an order granted under 
paragraph (5), to apply subsequently to the Court to have the order varied or


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paragraph (5), to apply subsequently to the Court to have the order varied or 
discharged). 
(8) The Court may direct the hearing together of applications made under 
paragraphs (4) and (5) that relate to the same direction. 
(9) The Court may, if it thinks fit, vary or discharge an order made under 
paragraph (5). 
(10) If the Court is satisfied that it is desirable that the whole or part of the 
proceedings relating to an application under paragraph (4) or (5) be heard


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string_value:
proceedings relating to an application under paragraph (4) or (5) be heard 
otherwise than in public because of the nature or the circumstances of the case 
or having regard to the interests of justice, then the Court may make an order 
that the proceedings shall, in whole or part, be heard otherwise than in public. 
(11) Without prejudice to the powers of the Court to enforce an order made 
under paragraph (5), a person who fails to comply with such an order shall be


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under paragraph (5), a person who fails to comply with such an order shall be 
guilty of an offence and shall be liable, on summary conviction to a class A fine 
or imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months, or both. 
(12) The Bank may give a direction amending or revoking a direction given 
by it under this Regulation but this power may not be exercised – 
(a) 
if an order made under paragraph (5) is for the time being in force 
in relation to the direction, or 
(b)


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in relation to the direction, or 
(b) 
to extend the period specified in the direction for which it is to 
have effect. 
(13) On the expiry of the period specified in a direction for which it is to have 
effect, the Bank may give another direction under this Regulation (if it considers 
it necessary to do so on the grounds specified in paragraph (1)), in like or 
different terms, to the person concerned. 
(14) The powers of the Bank under this Regulation are in addition to those


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(14) The powers of the Bank under this Regulation are in addition to those 
conferred on it by this or any other enactment to give directions or impose 
conditions or requirements. 
[41]  9 
 
(15) In this Regulation, “credit institution” means an undertaking the business 
of which is to take deposits or other repayable funds from the public and to grant 
credits for its own account. 
 
PART 3 
AUTHORISED OFFICERS AND RELATED MATTERS 
Definitions 
5. 
In this Part –


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PART 3 
AUTHORISED OFFICERS AND RELATED MATTERS 
Definitions 
5. 
In this Part – 
“authorised officer” means an authorised officer appointed under Regulation 6; 
“place” means a place entered by an authorised officer and includes the 
following: 
(a) 
a dwelling or a part thereof; 
(b) 
a building or a part thereof; 
(c) 
a vehicle, aircraft, vessel, ship, railway carriage or other means of 
transport; 
(d) 
a vessel, whether sea-going or not;


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transport; 
(d) 
a vessel, whether sea-going or not; 
“records” means any book, document or any other written or printed material in 
any form including any information (including phone and data traffic records) 
stored, maintained or preserved by means of any mechanical or electronic 
device, whether or not stored, maintained or preserved in a legible form; 
“relevant records” means records relating to the activities of persons to whom 
these Regulations or the EuGB Regulation apply.


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these Regulations or the EuGB Regulation apply. 
 
Power to appoint authorised officers 
6. (1) The Bank may, in writing – 
(a) 
authorise such and so many persons as the Bank considers 
necessary to be authorised officers for the purpose of monitoring 
compliance with the EuGB Regulation and these Regulations, and 
(b) 
at any time, revoke any such authorisation. 
(2) Subject to paragraph (1)(b), an appointment under paragraph (1)(a) may 
be for a specified or unspecified period.


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be for a specified or unspecified period. 
(3) Every authorised officer shall – 
(a) 
be furnished by the Bank with a certificate of his or her 
appointment as an authorised officer, and 
(b) 
when exercising a power under these Regulations of an authorised 
officer, produce the certificate, together with some form of 
personal identification, if requested to do so by a person affected 
by the exercise of that power. 
 
10  [41]


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by the exercise of that power. 
 
10  [41] 
 
(4) An appointment under paragraph (1) of a person as an authorised officer 
ceases on the occurrence of the earliest to occur of the following: 
(a) 
where the Bank revokes the appointment, the time of revocation; 
(b) 
where the person dies, the time of death; 
(c) 
where the person resigns from the appointment, the time of 
resignation; 
(d) 
where the appointment is for a specified period, the end of that 
period; 
(e)


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resignation; 
(d) 
where the appointment is for a specified period, the end of that 
period; 
(e) 
where the person appointed is, when appointed, an officer of the 
Bank, when the person ceases to be such an officer. 
 
Powers of authorised officers 
7. (1) An authorised officer may, for the purpose of carrying out an 
investigation for the purpose of monitoring compliance with the EuGB 
Regulation and these Regulations, do all or any of the following: 
(a)


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Regulation and these Regulations, do all or any of the following: 
(a) 
subject to paragraph (2), at all reasonable times enter any place at 
which there are reasonable grounds to believe that there are any 
relevant records; 
(b) 
search and inspect the place referred to in subparagraph (a) and 
any relevant records at that place; 
(c) 
secure for later inspection any place, or any part of any place at 
which relevant records are kept or at which the officer has


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which relevant records are kept or at which the officer has 
reasonable grounds for believing relevant records are kept; 
(d) 
require any person to whom these Regulations or the EuGB 
Regulation apply to produce to the officer relevant records, and if 
the relevant records are in a non-legible form to reproduce them 
in a legible form or to give to the officer such information as the 
officer reasonably requires in relation to entries in the relevant 
records; 
(e)


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officer reasonably requires in relation to entries in the relevant 
records; 
(e) 
inspect and take copies of relevant records inspected or produced 
under this Regulation (including, in the case of relevant records 
in a non-legible form, a copy of all or part of the relevant records 
in a permanent legible form); 
(f) 
remove and retain any of the relevant records inspected or 
produced under this Regulation for such period as may be 
reasonable to facilitate further examination; 
(g)


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reasonable to facilitate further examination; 
(g) 
require a person to give to the officer information (including give 
information by way of a written report) that the officer reasonably 
requires in relation to activities covered by the EuGB Regulation 
or these Regulations and to produce to the officer any relevant 
records that the person has or has access to; 
(h) 
require a person by whom, or on whose behalf, data equipment is


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(h) 
require a person by whom, or on whose behalf, data equipment is 
or has been used, or any person who has charge of, or is otherwise 
[41]  11 
 
concerned with the operation of, the data equipment or any 
associated apparatus or material, to give the officer all reasonable 
assistance in relation thereto; 
(i) 
require a person to explain entries in any relevant records; 
(j) 
summon, at any reasonable time, a person to give to the


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(j) 
summon, at any reasonable time, a person to give to the 
authorised officer such information as the authorised officer may 
reasonably require and to require the person to answer questions 
and to make a declaration as to the truth of the answers to those 
questions. 
(2) An authorised officer shall not, except with the consent of the occupier, 
enter a private dwelling (other than a part of the dwelling used as a place of


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enter a private dwelling (other than a part of the dwelling used as a place of 
work) unless the officer has obtained a warrant from a judge of the District Court. 
(3) Where any person from whom production of a relevant record is required 
claims a lien thereon, the production of the record shall be without prejudice to 
the lien. 
(4) A person making information available to the Bank in accordance with 
this Regulation shall not, in so doing, be considered to be infringing any


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this Regulation shall not, in so doing, be considered to be infringing any 
restriction on disclosure of information imposed by contract or law and, 
accordingly, shall not be liable for making the information so available. 
(5) The requirement to produce any relevant record or report or to provide 
information or assistance under this Regulation extends to – 
(a) 
an examiner, liquidator or receiver of, or any person who is or has 
been an officer or employee or agent of, a person to whom the


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been an officer or employee or agent of, a person to whom the 
EuGB Regulation or these Regulations apply, or 
(b) 
any other person who appears to the Bank or the authorised 
officer concerned to have the relevant record or report in his or 
her possession or under his or her control or the ability to provide 
information or assistance, as the case may be. 
(6) When exercising a power under this Part, an authorised officer may,


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(6) When exercising a power under this Part, an authorised officer may, 
where the officer considers it necessary, be accompanied by one or more than 
one member of the Garda Síochána or one or more than one authorised officer. 
 
Warrants 
8. (1) When an authorised officer in the exercise of the authorised officer’s 
powers under Regulation 7 – 
(a) 
is prevented from entering any place, that is not a private 
dwelling, or 
(b) 
believes that there are relevant records in a private dwelling,


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dwelling, or 
(b) 
believes that there are relevant records in a private dwelling, 
the authorised officer or the Bank may apply to a judge of the District Court for 
a warrant under this Regulation authorising the entry by the authorised officer 
into the place or the private dwelling, as the case may be. 
12  [41] 
 
(2) If on an application under paragraph (1) a judge of the District Court is 
satisfied, on the information of the applicant, that the authorised officer 
concerned – 
(a)


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satisfied, on the information of the applicant, that the authorised officer 
concerned – 
(a) 
has been prevented from entering any place, that is not a private 
dwelling, or 
(b) 
has reasonable grounds for believing that there are relevant 
records in a private dwelling, 
then the judge may issue a warrant under the judge’s hand authorising one or 
more than one authorised officer accompanied, if the judge considers it


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more than one authorised officer accompanied, if the judge considers it 
appropriate to so provide, by such number of members of the Garda Síochána as 
may be specified in the warrant, at any time within 4 weeks from the date of 
issue of the warrant, to enter, if need be by force, the place or private dwelling, 
as the case may be, and exercise any of the powers referred to in Regulation 7. 
 
PART 4 
ENFORCEMENT IN RELATION TO REGULATED FINANCIAL 
SERVICE PROVIDERS 
Administrative sanctions


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ENFORCEMENT IN RELATION TO REGULATED FINANCIAL 
SERVICE PROVIDERS 
Administrative sanctions 
9. (1) Where the provisions of the Act of 1942 are invoked in relation to a 
contravention specified in paragraph (3), any of the sanctions referred to in 
paragraph (5) may be imposed by the Bank – 
(a) 
following an inquiry under section 33AO of the Act of 1942, or 
(b) 
otherwise in accordance with section 33AR or 33AV of the Act 
of 1942.


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(b) 
otherwise in accordance with section 33AR or 33AV of the Act 
of 1942. 
(2) Subject to paragraph (6), the power of the Bank to impose any of the 
sanctions referred to in paragraph (5) is in addition to and not in substitution for 
its power to impose any of the sanctions specified in section 33AQ of the Act of 
1942. 
(3) Each of the following is a contravention referred to in paragraph (1): 
(a) 
an infringement of any of the provisions of Chapter 2 of Title II 
of the EuGB Regulation;


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(a) 
an infringement of any of the provisions of Chapter 2 of Title II 
of the EuGB Regulation; 
(b) 
an infringement of any of Articles 18, 19 or 21 of the EuGB 
Regulation; 
(c) 
an infringement of any of Regulations 4, 7, 8 or 24. 
(4) For the purposes of a contravention of the EuGB Regulation or these 
Regulations, any reference in the Act of 1942 to the sanctions set out in section 
33AQ of that Act is to be read as including a reference to the sanctions referred 
to in paragraph (5).


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to in paragraph (5). 
(5) The sanctions referred to in paragraph (1) are the following: 
(a) 
a public statement indicating the natural or legal person 
responsible and the nature of the contravention; 
 
[41]  13 
 
(b) 
an order requiring the natural or legal person responsible to cease 
the conduct constituting the contravention; 
(c) 
an order prohibiting the natural or legal person responsible from 
issuing European Green Bonds for a period not exceeding one 
year; 
(d)


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issuing European Green Bonds for a period not exceeding one 
year; 
(d) 
maximum administrative fines of twice the amount of the profits 
gained or losses avoided because of the contravention where 
those can be determined; 
(e) 
in the case of a legal person, maximum administrative fines of 
€500,000, or 0.5 per cent of the total annual turnover of that legal 
person according to the most recent available financial statements 
approved by the management body, whichever is the greater; 
(f)


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approved by the management body, whichever is the greater; 
(f) 
in the case of a natural person, maximum administrative fines of 
€50,000. 
(6) Where the sanction imposed by the Bank is a direction to pay a monetary 
penalty under section 33AQ(3)(c) of the Act of 1942, the amount of that penalty 
shall not exceed the amount of the maximum administrative fine referred to in 
paragraph (5)(e) or (f), as the case may be.


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paragraph (5)(e) or (f), as the case may be. 
(7) For the purposes of paragraph (5)(e), where the legal person is a parent 
undertaking or a subsidiary of a parent undertaking which is required to prepare 
consolidated financial statements in accordance with Directive 2013/34/EU3, the 
relevant total annual turnover shall be the total annual turnover or the 
corresponding type of income in accordance with the applicable European Union


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corresponding type of income in accordance with the applicable European Union 
law in the field of accounting according to the most recent available consolidated 
accounts approved by the management body of the ultimate parent undertaking. 
(8) Where a sanction referred to in paragraph (5) is imposed in respect of a 
contravention of the EuGB Regulation, the provisions of Article 52 of the EuGB 
Regulation shall apply in respect of the publication by the Bank of a decision to


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Regulation shall apply in respect of the publication by the Bank of a decision to 
impose such sanction and section 33BC of the Act of 1942 shall not apply. 
 
PART 5 
ENFORCEMENT IN RELATION TO NON-REGULATED FINANCIAL 
SERVICE PROVIDERS 
Interpretation 
10. In this Part – 
“adverse assessment” means an assessment in which the assessor has decided 
that the assessee is committing or has committed a prescribed contravention; 
“assessee” has the meaning given to it in Regulation 11(1);


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“assessee” has the meaning given to it in Regulation 11(1); 
“assessment” means an assessment referred to in Regulation 11; 
“assessor” means an assessor appointed by the Bank under Regulation 11; 
 
3 OJ L 182, 29.06.2013, p. 19 
14  [41] 
 
“non-regulated financial service provider” means a person who is not a regulated 
financial service provider (within the meaning of the Act of 1942) but who 
otherwise is a person subject to requirements imposed by the EuGB Regulation;


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otherwise is a person subject to requirements imposed by the EuGB Regulation; 
“prescribed contravention” means a contravention by a non-regulated financial 
service provider of any of the following provisions: 
(a) 
Chapter 2 of Title II of the EuGB Regulation; 
(b) 
Article 18, 19 or 21 of the EuGB Regulation; 
(c) 
Regulation 4, 7, 8 or 24; 
“sanction” means any sanction referred to in Regulation 20(1); 
“specified sanctions”, in relation to an adverse assessment, means a sanction or


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“specified sanctions”, in relation to an adverse assessment, means a sanction or 
sanctions referred to in Regulation 11(8)(c) that may be imposed on the assessee. 
 
Appointment of assessor 
11. (1) Where the Bank has reason to suspect that a prescribed contravention 
is being committed or has been committed by a person who is a non-regulated 
financial service provider (in this Part referred to as the “assessee”), the Bank


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financial service provider (in this Part referred to as the “assessee”), the Bank 
may appoint an assessor (or, if the Bank thinks fit to do so, more than one 
assessor) to conduct an assessment as to – 
(a) 
whether or not the assessee is committing or has committed the 
prescribed contravention, and 
(b) 
where the assessor finds that the assessee is committing or has 
committed the prescribed contravention, the specified sanction or 
sanctions, if any, which the assessor considers is or are


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sanctions, if any, which the assessor considers is or are 
appropriate to be imposed on the assessee in respect of the 
prescribed contravention. 
(2) The Bank may appoint an assessor who is not an officer, employee or 
official of the Bank and any such assessor so appointed is an agent of the Bank 
for the purpose of performing the functions of an assessor under this Part. 
(3) The Bank shall provide the assessor with such administrative services


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(3) The Bank shall provide the assessor with such administrative services 
(including technical and legal advice) as the Bank considers necessary to enable 
the assessor to perform the assessor’s functions. 
(4) The assessor shall, as soon as is practicable after his or her appointment 
as an assessor, give notice of the appointment to the assessee. 
(5) The notice under paragraph (4) shall contain – 
(a) 
a statement that the assessor is appointed by the Bank under this 
Regulation, 
(b)


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(a) 
a statement that the assessor is appointed by the Bank under this 
Regulation, 
(b) 
a statement in summary form of the grounds for conducting the 
assessment, 
(c) 
a statement that, within a reasonable time specified by the 
assessor in the notice, the assessee may – 
(i) 
make submissions in writing to the assessor, and 
[41]  15 
 
(ii) 
request the assessor to be permitted to make oral 
submissions about the matters to which the notice relates, 
and 
(d)


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submissions about the matters to which the notice relates, 
and 
(d) 
a statement that the assessor shall conduct the assessment even if 
no submissions referred to in subparagraph (c) are made. 
(6) The assessor shall – 
(a) 
consider any submissions referred to in paragraph (5)(c) made by 
the assessee, and 
(b) 
conduct such investigations relating to the assessment as the 
assessor considers appropriate before issuing the assessment.


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assessor considers appropriate before issuing the assessment. 
(7) The assessor shall issue the assessment to the Bank when the assessment 
is made. 
(8) Where the assessor decides that a prescribed contravention is being 
committed or has been committed, the assessor shall ensure that the assessment 
includes – 
(a) 
a statement of the grounds upon which the assessor made the 
assessment that the assessee is committing or has committed the 
contravention, 
(b)


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assessment that the assessee is committing or has committed the 
contravention, 
(b) 
a statement in summary form of the evidence upon which the 
assessment is based, and 
(c) 
a statement of the sanction or sanctions, if any, which the assessor 
considers is or are appropriate to be imposed on the assessee in 
respect of the contravention. 
(9) The appointment of an assessor may be for a specified or unspecified 
period.


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(9) The appointment of an assessor may be for a specified or unspecified 
period. 
(10) Subject to Regulations 16 and 17(2), the assessment shall constitute the 
decision of the Bank, and references in this Part to an adverse assessment shall 
be construed accordingly. 
 
Revocation of appointment of assessor 
12. (1) Where the Bank is satisfied that an assessor has contravened 
paragraph (2) or is incapacitated, the Bank may revoke the appointment of the 
assessor at any time.


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assessor at any time. 
(2) An assessor (including a person proposed for appointment as an assessor)  
shall – 
(a) 
disclose to the Bank any material interest that the assessor may 
have in any matter that may arise during the assessment, 
(b) 
disclose to the Bank any actual or potential conflict of interest that 
the assessor may have in conducting an assessment, 
(c) 
not use any information obtained during an assessment for any


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(c) 
not use any information obtained during an assessment for any 
purpose other than the performance of the assessor’s functions 
under this Part, 
16  [41] 
 
(d) 
not engage in misconduct during the assessment, 
(e) 
perform the assessor’s functions in accordance with the 
procedures and requirements set out in this Part, and 
(f) 
issue an assessment that is not contrary to law. 
 
Power to require witnesses to appear and give evidence


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Power to require witnesses to appear and give evidence 
13. (1) The assessor may, by notice given in or outside the State to a person, 
require the person to do one or more of the following: 
(a) 
appear before the assessor to give evidence (including giving 
evidence on oath); 
(b) 
produce documents specified in the notice which are in the 
person’s custody or control; 
(c) 
for the purposes of subparagraph (a) or (b), attend before the


