At what stage is the law applied retrospectively in the UK?
966102
Once you are 10 years old or older... you can be charged with a crime.  If under 10  he/she is not considered to be criminally liable.\n\nTherefore if you decide to make a citizens arrest and they are under ten and they have been injured,  you could find yourself being accused of assault.\n\n\nSo the answer to your question is that the law is applied retrospectively once a person has reached 10 years of age.
316738
Given my understanding of this question, the basic answer to this question is no, in either civil or common law systems.\n\nObviously, a statute or code cannot cover all sorts of conduct, including future conduct that are not anticipated by a statute or code (i.e. internet regulation).  Here, a court may be used to interpret conduct that is not regulated by some statute or code and give an opinion on the issue at hand.  That opinion, under either common law or civil law, is given "force of law," or precedential value, in which lower courts are under an obligation to follow.
831029
The Criminal Damage Act 1971 is still good law.  Recklessness was only one limb of it. The first limb remains the deliberate damaging of property belonging to another and recklessness is the alternative to cover cases where a defendant could argue that he didn't commit the damage deliberately, never having applied his mind to the consequences (being, for example, drunk or drugged. \n\nR v Caldwell applied a highly subjective test to the whole notion of recklessness, the judge having directed the jury to look at the situation not from the point of view of the reasonable man (an adult), but from the point of view of a reasonable child, the defendants in the case being children.  The House of Lords disapproved the ratio of R v.Caldwell in  the 2003 case of R v. G and another.\n\nThe test of recklessness now is: “A person acts recklessly within the meaning of section 1 of the Criminal Damage Act 1971 with respect to - (i) a circumstance when he is aware of a risk that it exists or will exist; (ii) a result when he is aware of a risk that it will occur; and it is, in the circumstances known to him, unreasonable to take the risk.” \n\nWhich of the many cases known as R v D are you referring to here?  I'm afraid I was unable to trace anything relevant.
189917
laws vary from each state on this matter?
466373
Depends on the kind of law you're talking about.\n\nIn the United States, some laws are "federal" and enforced at the national level.  Others are "state", "county", or "city" and are variously called statutes, ordinances, codes, and so on, depending on their usage.\n\nThen there is "common law" which is law based on what is commonly accepted at the time and is NOT set down in writing.  Most common law is now codified into regular law, but it may be that some states still allow "common law" marriages, for example.
338885
http://www.opsi.gov.uk/acts/acts1972/20068--b.htm
707435
1991, I believe, but it has been updated, clarified, and amended since then.\n\nGoogle the entire term for more info.
887120
Sadly, the practice you describe is legal in England but was banned in Scotland some consioderable time ago.  The High Court decided it was extortion.  \n\nI agree that this is worth an insurance claim.  It may also be worth a call to the local paper...
986724
A statute can give authority to a government agency or even a non-governmental entity (see the (UK) Lloyd's Act 1982) to pass regulations having the force of law.\n\nThe most obvious case concerns Internal Revenue Regulations.
212557
In the UK the legal age is 16......
1130315
Unfortunately i dont think there is a 'pardon' in the UK. THe only thing to do would be to appeal against the conviction, but i explained the appeal bits in anotehr of hte questions. (i'd just like to make you aware that i am not a professional lawyer. I realise i have answered your 3 questions, to the best of my own knowledge, but i am still a student, and still have much to learn. I would like to help as best i can, my email is foo_fighters_fan_2002@yahoo.co .uk if you wish to talk to me further)
372955
It varies by jurisdiction--but the general idea is explained in this brochure from the UK\n\nhttp://www.n-somerset.gov.uk/health+and+welfare/children/yot/presentence.pdf
1183755
If this is in relation to the UK... I don't know much about this directly, but my ex-wife is a child-care solicitor who works for a Local Authority as Head of Legal and she is always referring to the Children's Act.  Not sure if that will tell you what you need to know, but it will give you an understanding of the legal framework that works around children in the UK and the obligations and behvaiours you can expect from the relevant agencies.  I think that would be my starting point to dig into this.  I've attached a couple of links to the Act and a related site that might help.  Sorry I can't be of more use, but I hope that gets you going.  :)
411857
http://www.opsi.gov.uk/legislation/about_legislation.htm\n\nhttp://europa.eu.int/comm/enterprise/newapproach/standardization/harmstds/reflist.html
837042
In the UK it was with the Health and Safety at Work etc Act 1974.\nhttp://www.healthandsafety.co.uk/haswa.htm\n\nI just did a quick web search for the US legislation but can't find a date when it was first implemented there. I think H&S legislation was implemented in Europe before the UK or the US.
520341
Not sure if it's complete, but\nhttp://www.swarb.co.uk/acts/1979CustomsandExciseManagementAct.shtml
807871
European law is codified - and very different to UK and commonwealth law, which is based on the common law system - ie it has laws and regulations, but laws are also based on case precedent.  European law is strictly set out in laws - and much was done by Napoleon in early 19th century france in terms of setting out and developing these laws. These were essentially based on Roman law. Because the Napoleonic empire covered most of what is now the EU, its effect was huge.