Calcualte Foust's after- tax cost of new debt and common equity. Calaculate the cost of equity as ks=d1/p0+g
962565
If I do the work, do I get the grade?  If you don't do the work, should you get the grade?
437167
DID YOU CHECK FOR THE FIRM'S 10 k REPORT FROM THE SECURITY \nAND EXCHANGE COMMISSION'S EDGAR ONLINE SERVICE? ONCE YOU GET THAT AND OR THE ANNUAL REPORT YOU CAN CALCULATE \nTHE INFORMATION YOURSELF SEVERAL WAYS IF YOU HAVE TO.\nGET A COPY OF THE WALL STREET JOURNAL AND SEE IF THEY HAVE \nISSUED CORPORATE BONDS.  IF SO, BASED ON THEIR COUPON RATES AND THE CURRENT MARKET PRICE YOU CAN SIMPLY CALCULATE THE AFTER TAX YIELD TO MATURITY (ytm%).  YOU MAY BE ABLE \nTO BACK OUT THE COST OF DEBT FOR THE CORPORATION BY FIRST CALCULATING THEIR wEIGHTED AVERAGE COST OF CAPITAL(wacc%).\nFIND THE STOCK'S COST OF CAPITAL USING AN ASSET PRICING MODEL LIKE THE CAPM (CAPITAL ASSET PRICING MODEL) OR \nSIMILAR MODEL AND SUBTRACT IT FROM THE WACC%. MAKE SURE YOU\nHAVE ACCOUNTED FOR ANY PREFERRED STOCK COST IF IT HAS BEEN ISSUED.
502805
(Market Value of home) - (debt, loans, etc)  = equity
313319
It's been so long since I did ratios, I don't know if I remember them exactly...but I think current ratio is 2.5 ($40,000 current assets / $16,000 current liabilities), debt to equity would be 0.75 (Current liabs plus long term liabs = $60,000 / $80,000 equity), return on equity would be 9% ($7,200 / $80,000).  Hope you are just using these as check figures!!!
1153478
B is the answer.  If they pay before interest kicks in, no cost other than the goods themselves are involved. "0" percent APR.
384859
I = Prt\nwhere I is the interest, P is the principal, r is the interest rate, and t is the time (in years)
880195
The lower rate times investment A will be part of the 760.\nThe higher rate times investment B will be the other part.\nA and B are parts of $10,000.\nSo A + B = 10,000\n\n6% interest * A plus 8% interest times B = 760.\nSo .06 * A + .08 * B = 760.\n\nLets return to A + B = 10,000.\nYou can "define" B by solving for B\nA + B - A = 10,000 - A\nB = 10,000 - A.\n\nYou can now substitute the definition of B for its occurance in the interest equation .06 * A + .08 * B = 760.  Therefor\n.06 * A + .08 * (10,000 - A) = 760.\n\nNow that A is the only variable, you can solve for A.\n.06 * A + .08 * (10,000 - A) = 760.\n.06 * A + 800 - .08 * A = 760\n800 = 760 - .06A + .08A\n40 = .02A\n40 / 0.02 = A\n2,000 = A\n\nB will then be 10,000 - A.  B = 8,000\n\nNow let's check the answer\n$2,000 * 6% = $120\n$8,000 * 8% = $640\n$120 + $640 = $760 \nQED
749623
Simple Interest\nA = P *r * t\n\nCompound Interest (monthly)\nA = P(1 + r/12)^(12t)\n\nA1 = P(1 + .075/12)^(12*30)\nA2 = A1 * .06 * 1\n\nP(1 + .075/12)^(12*30) * .06 * 1 >= 12000\nP >= 12000 / ((1 + .075/12)^(12*30) * .06)\nP >= $21,227.97
612939
If the first loan is $100,000 at 10%, and the second loan is $20,000 at 15%, then the blended rate is:\n\n(100,000*10% + 20,000*15%)/(100,000 + 20,000).
1042143
a. 10.9\n\n\nusing Gordon's dividend growht discount model, which is Dividends / (discount rate - growth), we see that:\n\n$1.80 (10.9% - 7%) = $46.15.\n\nof course, you have to use algebra to back into x, which was the 10.9%.
78911
If it was compounded annually:\nToday - $5,397.31\n6 Years ago - $3,401.22\n\nSee the link below to calculte using other options.
913689
Add additional details to your question and I may be able to answer it.  I assume you are looking for the expected value, but some of you data is missing.\nE(X) = .7(175000) + .3(-amount of the loss)
94899
for question 1 is the return 8.242% per year? I would guess yes, so you would multiply 1.08242 to the 30th power times 10000. \n\nWhat you are doing here is to multiply 10,000 times 1.08242, (add the one to keep the 10000 plus interest, if you dont add the one you are only calculating the interest and have to add back in the 10000) to get how much at the end of year one, then multiply that result by 1.08242 to get what you have at end of year 2. Then keep doing that until at the end of year 30.\n\nThe second question is a bit more difficult. Take that spreadsheet and fill in the values at the top. make your begining value 10000 and the annual payment 0. Not sure what value to use for confidence (I am sure you know what to use here) and the other two were given return = 8%, deviation=10%. After 30 years you will have a lower and an upper limit. \n\nYou then take answer from #1 and find out how far into the range it is to find the percent liklihood. For example if the lower limit was 100 and the upper limit was 300 and your number calculate in #1 was 150, then you can see that 150 is greater than 25% of the possibilities and less than 75%. So you would do worse 25% of the time.\n\nThe actual calulation would be:\nU = Upper limit\nL = lower limit\nR = range = U - L\nC = compared value = answer from #1\n\npercent worse = (C-L)/R\n\nin the example percent worse = (150-100)/(300-100)
727780
X(1.25)\nX=the amount in euro's that you won
915560
let\nx = amount in growth fund,\ny = amount in income fund,\nz = amount in money market fund\n\n\nx + y + z = $3,200\n0.07x + 0.10y + 0.05z = $250\nx = 2z
338769
You need to know the interest rate in order to find the amount in the account after 4 years.\nLet r = interest rate\nA = 8000(1+(r/12))^(4*12)\nA = 8000(1+(r/12))^48  Now plug in the r.\n\nTo double:\n2 = (1+(r/12))^(12n)\nTake the natural log of each side\nln(2) = (12n)*ln(1+(r/12))\nn = [ln(2)]/[12*ln(1+(r/12))] \nnow plug in r and simplify.
809669
Use this formula:\n\nWACC = We*Re + Wp*Rp +Wd*Rd*(1-t)\n\nwhere We is the weight of equity (8MM/16MM = 0.5)\nwhere Wp is the weight of preferred (1MM/16MM)\nwhere Wd is the weight of debt (7MM/16MM)\n\nRe is the return on equity\nRp is the return on preferred stock\nRd is the return on debt\n\nt is the tax rate = 0.4