Is A Persons Value Measured After Their Gone By The Amount of Money They Leave in Their Will?
969845
definitely not, a person's value is measured on the way he had lived his life whether it is profitable to other people   or not  in terms of moral standards,and not necessarily the amount  of money left behind,  it is said a good name is better than silver or gold.
1144202
wife unless otherwise specified in will
894338
The law states that if you have made a resonable attempt to locate the owner to no avail, then the money is yours. If you feel that you have made this attempt, and were not able to locate them, then the money is yours, no need for guilt. However, the best thing to do with money that God throws your way is to give it to someone in need.
1114045
It depends on the report you're referring to. I've seen reports of both income and net worth, although I don't recall whether that was a report from the IRS or not.\n\nI do know that the IRS develops statistical data that is derived from estate tax returns - that may be what you are referring to. You can see more by following the link below.
403216
the executor of the estate is supposed to divie up the remains equally, i think; and that means for everything that is sold you get an equal share.  if they sold it, it doesnt matter if they already spent their portion of what they got, they still owe you your share.  you can sue them.  its a shame people act so selfishly and unethical towards each other when their parent dies.
1178904
From a legal aspect, there's two theories of thought when it comes to valuing a life.  The financial loss of an adult can easily be calculated by the amount of income they earn, and aggregate that until retirement age.  Children, however, are different.  The amount invested in the child, i.e. schooling, feeding, birthing, etc., are added up over the course of the child's age.  However, society will do whatever it takes to save a life if it's on a TV screen.
77227
They pass to your estate.
50084
it depends on how many they have left when they become an adult.
276770
Be careful, if you are inheriting a deceased estate there may be some tax implications, depending on the assets in question. Speak to a tax accountant or financial planner for current advice. Better yet, speak to at least 2, that way you get a balanced opinion on the issue. \n\nCheers, L
253989
In estates law, it means making sure that the proper heirs get the rest, residue and remainer of a decedent's estate after all of the specific gifts have been made.\n\nEx.  "To Alan, I leae $10,000.00.  To Betty, I leave my watch.  To my three children, I leave the rest, residue and remainder."  So when this guy dies, the executor gives Carl ten g's, Betty a watch, and distributes the residue (which could be four bucks or four million) evenly between the three children.
676400
My guess would be the more recent document unless the will violates a court order. The best determination would be made by a lawyer.
67222
Adult child is actually too vague to respond to in view of the fact a child can be an adult, but still not be emancipated from the family; assuming the adult did not live at home, it would depend upon her will executor assigned ... the property she owned, and what her bills were at the time of death. If she had property, it would have to be sold and her bills paid from the sales.
788138
I'm in Australia.  As far as I'm aware the estate of the deceased person is required to pay the outstanding debts.  So your mother, as beneficiary, is required to pay the debts out of the money that was left to her, rather than out of her own money.  If there is insufficient money in the estate, then it will not be necessary for her to make up the shortfall.
843535
It depends upon how the account was held.  If it was a true joint account, which carries with it the right of survivorship, when one owner dies, the other becomes the owner of the funds in the account.
220053
It means the original owner died.  And somebody sold, or gave away the belongings.  Only dead people have "estates".
647864
First of all, it depends on when you inherited it and when you are selling it.\n\nYour "basis" in the property is what it was worth at the time of the death of the person you inherited it from.\n\nIf that was a while ago, the property may have increased in value.  If it was recently, or in an area not experiencing increased value since you inherited, it may be at or near the same value as your "basis" at the time of their death.\n\nThe difference between your "basis" and the current sales price of the property is called the "capital gain" and it is all that you will be taxed on.\n\nEXAMPLES  \n\nIf value @ death was $35,000.00 and you are selling for $35,000.00 - NO TAX (no gain because the basis is as same as the sales price)\n\nIf value @ death was $25,000.00 and you are selling for $35,000.00 - $10,000 Taxable Capital Gain\n\nAs for the tax rates, that is where my expertise pretty much ends.\n\nThere are Long Term Capital Gains and Short Term Capital Gains, and I do not know the length of time for each, nor whether or not there is a difference because the property was inherited and not purchased.  They are taxed at different rates, and those rates have nothing to do with your income level or any other particulars other than the time the capital asset (the property) was held by you. \n\nFor this you will need to speak to an accountant or tax advisor, but I hope you have a better understanding now of what questions to ask to get a complete answer from them.\n\nGood luck and take care.
951923
Compentancy of the person at the time the 1972 will was created and/or a change in the legal heirs (but this is a tough fight).\n\nGood Luck!!!