Which items does section 112 apply and does it specifically rule out this benefit for sale of land?
923841
what is LTCG?\n\nif u sell a land the tax is applicable and is calculated the difference amount of ur selling price and its buyingprice and inflation
785068
I think the rules vary from state to state. You will need to check the specific rules for ND.\n\nWhere I live the mineral rights owner can access the property to exploit the minerals but must pay the surface owner damages.
427094
If the land is left managed for 10 years, the person or entity that's beening using it will have the right to use.\n\nfor example, if A has a land but left it unattended, B live right next to A and has been using the land for farming or whatever, after 10 years B will have the right to use and and there isn't anything A can do about it.  (until B gives up the right)
531975
The case is "Pye v. Graham."  It was regarding adverse possession and land rights in the UK.  A pretty thorough recap of the facts and decision in the case can be found at the following:\n\nhttp://www.garywebber.co.uk/propertylawuk/pyegraham.htm
1023860
Enclose the property with a wall and Live in it paying council tax for a period exceeding 12 years, during that time you must prove you have tried to contact the owner and pay rent, if after 12 years the true owner has not asked for posession or rent then you are allowed to APPLY for the title to be transferred to you. this however is fraught with difficulty.\n\nthis cannot be done if any part of the land is classified as common land or has a public right of way passing through it or there is any secured borrowing on the property.\n\nther is NO such thing as squatters rights and you must be carefull not to break and enter or cause damage to the property as this will invalidate any future claim for transfer of title.\n\nPlease note that if you do sucees in transferring title to you it can still bel claimed back from you by the european court..\n\nDont bother trying unless you know the real owner doesnt want it. if ther is NO owner legally it belongs to the crown and you cant  transfer title from the crown under this method
899924
I think the other answer is a bit of an exaggeration; on the other hand I don't know -- and a quick Google check hasn't revealed -- to what extent the Statute of Frauds, requiring a writng for transfer of interests in land, or contracts therefor, applies to Scotland.\n\nNor have you said what stage your sale has reached.\n\nI don't thinkk this is a DIY project. You are going to need Scots counsel to negotiate a solution if a binding contract was reached (establishing terms of sale, etc.) If there is room for doubt, your situation is good: a contract that is to be enforced has to include all the important terms.
615611
How long a property that is listed for sale has been on the market.
1101417
This can be an interesting answer.\n\nIf you are not claiming the property as rental property, it might still qualify as your primary residence.  You should speak to an expert about this... it's worth looking in.\n\nMarried people would have a section 121 deduction for their primary.  But if you are partners, not legally married you might not recieve the same benefit.\n\nIf you are not receiving the 121 benefit, you may want to speak to your accountant about how to better structure how you are holding the real estate.\n\nI'm releasing this site next week, by July 1st ,you should be able to find some good experts:\nhttp://www.1031store.com\n\nFind experts here:\nhttp://www.1031store.com/experts/1031_exchange_experts.php\n\nCalculate your gain here:\nhttp://www.1031store.com/resources/1031_capital_gains_calculator.php\n\nI'm finishing up the front end, so it will even look nicer next week... some really cool stuff...\n\nHope this helps.\nStarke
266942
I believe that you are asking from the UK.  I am almost positive that your 'parkhold' is dealt with under the same rules as Landlord/Tenant disputes for ordinary dwellings. See the Citizen's Advice Bureau or a Solicitor.  However, have you spoken to your 'landlord'.  There may well be a good and proper reason for making the move, ie., your safety, the safety of others, the provision of better amenities etc.
790468
Actually, there are laws pertaining to this. I have no idea what it's called but look for "property rights" maybe "access" "new property lines"  in Google. It has something to do with after many years, the rights can be "grandfathered" or something like that. You should see a real estate attorney.
929924
Sale of immovable property\n\nA sale is transfer of ownership of property by one living person to another living person for a mutually agreed price paid or promised or part paid or part promised. The Contract Act, the Transfer of Property Act, the Registration Act, the General Clauses Act, and acts of local bodies govern it. It is transfer of all the rights, title and interest with easements and privileges of the seller to the buyer, for the latter's use of the property as the absolute owner. \n\nSale deeds \n\nThe instrument of sale perfected by execution and registration is called Deed of Sale. The word 'convey' is also understood as 'sale', thus a deed of sale is also known as deed of conveyance. And both the seller and buyer must execute the deed of sale. \n\nA seller, a buyer and the description of the property to be sold, are the most important ingredients in a sale. Other key points are that it must be a transfer; and such a transfer must be of full ownership. The sale consideration would be the price paid or promised to be paid. \n\nTransfer of property \n\nThough a sale is a transfer of property, every transfer of property is not a sale. This is because a property can also be transferred to a person by way of lease, mortgage or gift. In these cases, the transfer is for a limited period only and no buyer or seller is involved. The seller must have a clear and marketable title to the property and must be competent enough to convey the property and should not suffer from any disability. He must be a person, major in age and of sound mind, and if the property is not his own, he must have the authority to transfer it. \n\nTitle to property \n\nThe title to property on sale must be free from all encumbrances, claims and court proceedings. One must note that encumbrance on a property will not make a title marketable. Existence of encumbrance found after completion of sale obligates the vendor to indemnify the purchaser, and an encumbered property cannot be forced upon a purchaser. \n\nThe document of title is said to be defective if there is a pending court case, a demand on the property easement right, or acquisition proceedings. As regards sale of property of a minor, permission must be obtained from the court concerned, as a minor cannot enter into a contract. However, in case of sale to a minor, it is enough if a guardian represents him, after obtaining the court's permission. \n\nExecuting a sale deed \n\nThe execution of a deed of sale and payment of the sale consideration are mutual. A sale deed is always executed against payment of the price and this is the essence of contract for sale. Payment can be made on a date mutually agreed, which may be a future date after registration of the sale deed. However, payment by way of gold ornaments or other valuables of equivalent amount may satisfy a seller but the law would look at it as 'barter' and not as sale. Therefore, price payable for sale of property should be in terms of money only and not otherwise. \n\nAccording to the Transfer of Property Act, sale of a tangible immovable property of value below Rs 100, can be effected either by a registered document or by delivery of the property, If, however, the value of the immovable property exceeds Rs 100, registration before the registering authority concerned is mandatory. In a situation where a sale of an immovable property of value exceeding Rs 100 is made under an unregistered deed and the possession is delivered, the purchaser will not be able to claim legal ownership of the property for the simple reason that the deed is not a registered document. \n\nA sale deed perfected by execution and registration will not make the sale valid. The important elements of sale as stated must be present in a sale deed. If, for example, the price of property were not determined, even though the sale deed may be perfected by registration, it would be invalid in the eyes of the law. \n\nTypes of transfers
631114
Technically yes - but only on a proportion of the total gain.  The period relating to your living there is exempt from CGT, as is a further three years (based on an old assumption that it may take you a long time to sell).  There are further exemptions depending on your circumstances - eg if you are employed abroad or working away from your home town for certain periods.  It is more complicated if you own a second home as well, in which case you should get specific advice - or put more details on here and I`ll try to help!
875432
No. If it is  aprivate agreement betwen the parties there is no problem at all, however, if the tennant will require housing benefit to pay for the tenancy seek immediate assistance with this from either the local citzens advice beurea or the Welfare rights officer at the local social work office. \n\nThe answer is that there is no problem with this at all, however, many local authorties take a dim view on this and disallow any claims to housing benefit on the basis that it is either "a non commercial tennacy" (regulation 9 1(A) HB Regs 2006) or that the tenancy was "contrived to take advantage of the housing benefit scheme" (Reg 9(1)(L) HB Regs 2006), so if Housing benefit figures in this agreement then seek advice, if not then it is not a problem at all
790336
Really complex area - some boffins spend all their lives looking into this.\n\nThe abbreviated answer is:\n* Yes, definitely if the property is less than three years old\n* Maybe if the property is more than three years old\n\nTechnically if a property is more than three years old it is exempt from VAT but the seller can waive this exemption (known as 'opting to tax') if they wish.  This will mean 17.5% VAT is charged on the sale (which the seller doesn't get to keep).  The reason the seller might do this is becuase if they sell a building and charge VAT they're allowed to reclaim VAT on any related costs (such as legal fees).\n\nOnce a building is 'opted' you can't change that status even if it changes hands. Therefore the next time its sold on VAT would have to be charged on the sale.\n\nThese rules only apply to commercial property - not residential.\n\nTrust me - get an accountant/tax adviser to assist - really complex area.
979518
The previous answer is correct except for the fact of this deed containing a "life estate". This means that the deed is in the name of the grantee as it was recorded, but that the previous owner (the grantor) has retained a life estate in the property. basically that means that the grantee can not evict, sell, or otherwise dispose of the grantor while they are still alive and wish to live in the property. \n\nI hope that helps a bit.
418931
I am not sure but I do beleive it has something to do with realestate. You as the consumer or purchaser can obtain a deed on the property? Something along those lines,...
1061024
I would be interested but im pretty sure that even though that you have the deed to the property doesnt the government have to make the final determination of whom can buy there.\nI remember something to that nature my ex saying.