Can a couple to buy a house with good credit when one of them has a "Stand Alone Restitution Order"?
919146
Sure the other wants to buy a house with the one????
231456
If she is listed on the policy then there should not be a problem.  Was the house in both their names?  Call her local agent and let them know that the check needs to be rewritten or check with the bank to see if they will accept the check as is.
78120
Of course you could win the case in court.  The problem is collection after the judgement.  All you'll have is a legal judgement, the person can still stiff you and refuse to pay it.  I would require a form of collateral.  If your friend owns property, with a judgement you could put a lien on it so he/she couldn't sell it or even refi because the title isn't clean.  Get the letter notarized too, the notary would be another witness.  If you have any doubts, don't do it.
1143760
She should speak with the current mortgage lender regarding a "Short Sale".  This type of transaction is used when the house sells for less than the mortgage owed.  Yes, the difference must be paid back.  A payment schedule is created by the bank.  It is a better option than bankruptcy - but will still effect her credit score (or anyone else's score that is on the loan).  However, most people who have a short sale are still able to buy another home (while bankruptcy could proclude one from doing that)
419113
The "marriage penalty" no longer exists.  So, it is no longer intrinsically better to file separately.  Some couples though, dependant on their holdings, may get a better deal by filing seperately.\n\nJust for the record, people who are getting divorced are not actually divorced.  They can still file jointly.  And if they own a home, they both benefit from the credit if they file jointly.  Otherwise, only one gets the credit.
811554
As a real estate professional I would advise you to seek the council of a good attorney.  Your question concerns law and they are the best to advise you on this matter.
872121
Your story is very complicated i suggest that you see an AR lawyer specializing in estates.\nBelow is a brief outline of the law.\nThe property that each spouse brings into the marriage, that is, the property that s/he owned before the marriage, is considered to be "separate" or "non-marital" property. For the property to remain separate, the spouse must keep it apart from marital or community property; that is, s/he would keep it entirely in his/her name. Once the separate property has been commingled (mixed) with marital or community property, it becomes part of the marital property.\nFor example, consider a bank account with $10,000 in it owned by woman before her marriage. This woman then marries and both she and her husband regularly deposit their respective paychecks into the account and periodically withdraw money to pay for their living expenses. At the time of separation twenty years later, the bank account has $5,000 in it. Since marital property has gone into it (deposits of the paychecks and marital or community debts have been paid from it is impossible to trace the original separate property money from that of marital or community property. The result is that this bank account has changed from separate property to marital property.\nSome states, such as California, have a separate property rule that says that all property brought into the marriage, (including gifts and inheritance), that is kept separate and apart from community property remains the separate property of the spouse that owns it.
82702
No a spouse can not be a dependant on the tx return.\nEither you have to file together or separately.
282042
1) Depends primarily on whether the debt was incurred before or after marriage (or partially both)\n2) Also depends on your state law (whether the debt is characterised as community property)\n3) May also depend on whether the borrowing was made against community property assets (e.g. credit card debt, student loan, personal loan vs. remortgage, home equity loan, loan against 401K or stock).\n\nProbably you mean a CC debt from before a marriage?\nIn which case the answer is probably no.\nHowever *beware* that lenders may still try to recover against the other (more responsible?) spouse and this may damage your credit. So make sure your lack of liability is spelled out in any legal settlement or MSA.
671419
I think it may depend on what state you live in and if kids are in the picture.My ex just took a few things and she was gone,which was her choice.I had to refiance in my name only and she had to sign off.Sometimes whoever wants the house may have to buy the other halves part from them.I guess all in all.... depends on your states laws...
470511
and two became one, yep.  you inherit the wealth, unfortunately, except you will still have 2 individual credit scores.  i was in the same situation, it was hard getting our house cause he made more money but had the credit problem, but as long as everything is paid to date, and the credit bureaus have been updated most places will look at that and take it into to consideration, you should be ok.  if he still has bad credit and outstanding bills, try to pay them off and close them yourself, it looks alot better than if they close them for you.  and even if you couldnt pay them off, sometimes calling them, they will make a settlement amount and you could be better off then if they take it to a collection agency, ive been through this, im soooooo glad thats over.  i bet you werent to happy with him about this, just try not to yell at him about it, he probably already feels bad enough, just work with him, and you be in charge of the finances.  good luck.
18358
As usual with legal-related questions on Yahoo! answers, too little information has been provided to answer the question adequately.  If the verbal agreement was informal, made between friends or family members, or made in an otherwise unprofessional environment, it is likely uneforceable.  The state of residence, which was not provided, matters, as does the nature of the episode, and whether any consideration was offered in return.  Additionally, the statute of frauds may be implicated, which would REQUIRE a contract in writing before it can be enforceable, which is again unclear from the facts.  You should consult a lawyer with the specific facts from your case, or you should post a new question with explicit and careful detail.  I hope at least this much is helpful.
243809
Yes it does indirectly. If you two want to buy a home than it could only go into his name. Likewise for anything else. Your best bet is to start cleaning up your credit...K
350102
If you have signed contracts in both names (example: car, house, cell phones, loans) then you will be responsible.  If one party doesn't make said payments then they will come after second party.  If there are not contractual agreements that both parties have signed, I'm not completely sure how that works but I don't see how they can hold you responsible. I'm in the U.S.  I just know that contracts are enforceable regardless of divorce.
773401
Yes there are.\n\nThere are mortgage product available for owner who just received a "notice of Default".\n\nIf however the bank or lender repossesed the property or it was sold in an auction you would have to come up with private funds to redeem your property back.\n\nIf you are in California and need assistance in foreclosure bailout loans we can help\n\nRommel Mijares\nMortgage Specialist
275204
You don't have to own property to have a state tax lien. Basically what it means is he has unpaid state income taxes that are past due.  The state will put a "lien" on you which means they can take any federal tax return money you may get, or "attach" any property or income you have coming in the future until the past due taxes have been paid.  They can actually go and attach or garnish your wages until it's paid off too. Since you are his wife, they can garnish your wages too.  Employers tend to get upset with this stuff and in some states can even fire you for it.  I would contact your state tax collection people (you can look in the phone book under "(your state name)_______ State Income Tax")and find out exactly how much you owe.  Usually you can make an arrangement with them to pay it off in payments. As long as it's outstanding, you are getting hit with penalties and interest too, which can turn a relatively small amount into a HUGE debt in a very short time.   Trying to get anything on credit will be next to impossible also with that on your credit report.  The sooner you take care of it, the better!
57972
Very few loans are made these days that have transferability.  The loan is made in the names of the original borrowers based on their specific qualifications.  Your loan documents will tell you whether or not you loan can be "assumed".  If it is a fixed rate, chances are very low that it can be assumed.\n\nIf a husband and wife owned a house together, got divorced, and the husband got the house in the divorce settlement, even though the house would be in his name, the loan would still be in both their names, and on both their credit reports until such time the property is sold or refinanced in the name of the husband only.\n\nSo, in short, check your existing documents as to whether or not it allows "assumability".  If you don't have a copy of your loan documents, call your lender and ask.