criminal-law legal-terms india assault indian-penal-code
what does &quot;force&quot; and &quot;criminal force&quot; apply to in Indian Penal Code?
<p>how is &quot;force&quot; interpreted in <a href="https://www.indiacode.nic.in/show-data?actid=AC_CEN_5_23_00037_186045_1523266765688&amp;orderno=389" rel="nofollow noreferrer">section 349</a> Indian Penal Code?</p>
<blockquote>
<p>Force.—A person is said to use force to another if he causes motion, change of motion, or cessation of motion to that other, or if he causes to any substance such motion, or change of mo­tion, or cessation of motion as brings that substance into con­tact with any part of that other’s body, or with anything which that other is wearing or carrying, or with anything so situated that such contact affects that other’s sense of feeling: Provided that the person causing the motion, or change of motion, or cessation of motion, causes  that motion, change of motion, or cessation of motion in one of the three ways hereinafter de­scribed.</p>
<p>(First) — By his own bodily power.</p>
<p>(Secondly) —By disposing any substance in such a manner that the motion or change or cessation of motion takes place without any further act on his part, or on the part of any other person.</p>
<p>(Thirdly) — By inducing any animal to move, to change its motion, or to cease to move.</p>
</blockquote>
<p>Can someone pointing an object which they might not bring into contact with them but which still distresses them count as force or assault?</p>
<p>for example ponting a some object  at someone and they're scared of the object  so they move whenever the object appears before them.
<a href="https://www.indiacode.nic.in/show-data?actid=AC_CEN_5_23_00037_186045_1523266765688&amp;orderno=390#:%7E:text=Whoever%20intentionally%20uses%20force%20to,is%20used%2C%20is%20said%20to" rel="nofollow noreferrer">https://www.indiacode.nic.in/show-data?actid=AC_CEN_5_23_00037_186045_1523266765688&amp;orderno=390#:~:text=Whoever%20intentionally%20uses%20force%20to,is%20used%2C%20is%20said%20to</a></p>
<p>see the illustrations section of this linked law for example. based on the illustrations would my example come under the definition of criminal force ?</p>

<p><strong>Can someone pointing an object which they might not bring into contact with them but which still distresses them count as force or assault?</strong></p>
<p>This would be an assault, contrary to <a href="https://www.indiacode.nic.in/show-data?actid=AC_CEN_5_23_00037_186045_1523266765688&amp;orderno=391" rel="nofollow noreferrer">section 351</a> IPC:</p>
<blockquote>
<p>Whoever makes any gesture, or any preparation intending or knowing it to be likely that such gesture or preparation will cause any person present to apprehend that he who makes that gesture or preparation is about to use criminal force to that person, is said to commit an assault.</p>
<p><em>Explanation</em>.—Mere words do not amount to an assault. But the words which a person uses may give to his gestures or preparation such a meaning as may make those gestures or preparations amount to an assault.</p>
<p><em>Illustrations</em></p>
<p>(a) A shakes his fist at Z, intending or knowing it to be likely that he may thereby cause Z to believe that A is about to strike Z. A has committed an assault.</p>
<p>(b) A begins to unloose the muzzle of a ferocious dog, intending or knowing it to be likely that he may thereby cause Z to believe that he is about to cause the dog to attack Z. A has committed an assault upon Z.</p>
<p>(c) A takes up a stick, saying to Z, &quot;I will give you a beating&quot;. Here, though the words used by A could in no case amount to an assault, and though the mere gesture, unaccompanied by any other circumstances, might not amount to an assault,the gesture explained by the words may amount to an assault.</p>
</blockquote>
