european-union gdpr
Is an incentivized consent considered freely given in GDPR?
<p>Let's say someone offers you 50 bucks if you opt-in to a consent; would that consent be still considered freely given in the eyes of GDPR (General Data Protection Regulation)?</p>

<p>My understanding is that this would definitely not be okay, but it has reached my ears that someone with more legal education than me claims that this would be okay.</p>

<p>PS. For the record, I am not planning on doing this, just asking out of interest.</p>

<p>"Freely given" basically means there was no coercion involved -- in other words, that one can't threaten or enact negative consequences for refusal, meaning (for example) the company can't charge you $50 for failing or refusing to opt in.</p>

<p>They can, however, try to bribe you into opting in. If you say no, there are no negative consequences -- you're just out $50 that wasn't yours anyway.</p>

<p>(Not sure about the legalities if you opt in, get the $50, and then opt out. Hairy situations like that, though, are probably why i haven't heard of companies offering opt-in bonuses. :P That, and perhaps they figure the service they're already providing is enough.)</p>
