contract-law new-york-state
Can a breach of contract lead to a lack of &quot;personal jurisdiction?&quot;
<p>Plaintiff and defendant sign a contract. Plaintiff then sues defendant in say, New York state, for breach of contract. Defendant (a corporation) claims it never did business in New York state, and that the New York court does not have jurisdiction. This is literally true because defendant did not perform its obligations under the contract. Had the defendant performed those obligations, it would have done business in New York. The contract does say that it will be governed by New York law, but does not specify that disputes must be litigated in New York.</p>
<p>The plaintiff is domiciled in New York and the contract was signed in New York. The defendant is a foreign company. Let's say that the contract is for delivery of imported goods at New York harbor.</p>
<p>Can such a plea hold up? Or is it a case of <a href="https://content.next.westlaw.com/6-521-9533?__lrTS=20200713090327297&amp;transitionType=Default&amp;contextData=(sc.Default)&amp;firstPage=true" rel="nofollow noreferrer">&quot;unclean hands'</a>?</p>

<h3>No, New York would have jurisdiction.</h3>
<p><a href="https://law.justia.com/codes/new-york/2012/cvp/article-3/302/" rel="nofollow noreferrer">NY CPLR § 302 (2012)</a> (New York's &quot;long-arm statute&quot;) states that:</p>
<blockquote>
<p>As to a  cause  of  action  arising
from  any  of  the acts enumerated in this section, a court may exercise
personal jurisdiction over  any  non-domiciliary,  or  his  executor  or
administrator, who in person or through an agent:</p>
<ol>
<li>transacts  any  business within the state or <strong>contracts anywhere to
supply goods or services in the state</strong> ...</li>
</ol>
</blockquote>
<p>The Supreme Court has upheld a similar long-arm statute (giving Florida jurisdiction over anyone breaching a contract within the state) in <a href="https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Burger_King_Corp._v._Rudzewicz" rel="nofollow noreferrer">Burger King v. Rudzewicz</a>, stating that:</p>
<blockquote>
<p>A forum may assert specific jurisdiction over a nonresident defendant where an alleged injury arises out of or relates to actions by the defendant himself that are purposeful [sic] directed toward forum residents, and where jurisdiction would not otherwise offend &quot;fair play and substantial justice.&quot;</p>
</blockquote>
<p>This would appear to fall under that reasoning: the defendant purposefully signed a contract in New York with a New York company to do business in New York, and litigating the case where they'd agreed to do business, but failed to, would hardly offend fair play or substantial justice.</p>
